Dear Students/Parents We at 'Apex Institute' are committed to provide our students best quality education with ethics. Moving in this direction, we have decided that unlike other expensive and 5star facility type institutes who are huge investors and advertisers, we shall not invest huge amount of money in advertisements. It shall rather be invested on the betterment, enhancement of quality and resources at our center. We are just looking forward to have 'word-of-mouth' publicity instead. Because, there is only a satisfied student and his/her parents can judge an institute's quality and it's faculty members coaching. Those coaching institutes, who are investing highly on advertisements, are actually, wasting their money on it, in a sense. Rather, the money should be invested on highly experienced faculty members and on teaching gears. We all at 'Apex' are taking this initiative to improve the quality of education along-with each student's development and growth. Committed to excellence... With best wishes. S . Iqbal ( Motivator & Mentor)

1. Stable & Best Faculty
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CRASH COURSE for IIT-JEE,BITS,UPTU& AIPMT
Tips + Tricks + Time management
Training of more than 240 hrs. by highly experienced and best in class faculty.
Study material having concise chapterwise theory for clarity on key concepts & formulae.
Specialized Practice Booklets containing 3000 problems, forms the Course.
Expert's tips on time management and strategic planning will help students to focus and plan well.
10 full length tests on IIT‐Main pattern along with detail discussion.
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BIOLOGY
(class12th)
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Boost your IIT-JEE / AIPMT Preparation

2. (b) fusion between one large female gamete and a
smaller non-motile male gamete.
(c) fusion between one large female gamete and a
smaller motile male gamete.
(d) fusion between one smaller female gamete and a
large motile male gamete.
7. a plant growing wild in one country was brought
to another with the same latitude and at the same
height from sea level. However, the plant did not
multiply. The possible causative factor for this is
(a) temperature difference
(b) difference in the length of the day
(c) absence of a specific vector
(d) humidity difference.
8. Match column - I with column - II and select the
correct option from the codes given below.
Column - I Column - II
a. Phycomycetes (i) Alternaria and Trichoderma
B. ascomycetes (ii) Agaricus and Ustilago
C. Basidiomycetes (iii) Aspergillus, Claviceps and
Neurospora
D. Deuteromycetes (iv) Mucor, Rhizopus and
Albugo
(a) a - (i), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (ii)
(b) a - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii)
(c) a - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)
(d) a - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)
9. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents
(a) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are
formed.
(b) a cup-shaped cavity in the ovule in which pollen
grains are stored after pollination.
(c) an opening in the megagametophyte through
which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
(d) the microsporangium in which pollen grains
develop.
1. a specimen or other element selected to serve as
nomenclatural type as long as all of the material on
which the description of the new species was based
is missing is called
(a) syntype (b) neotype
(c) isotype (d) lectotype
2. Consider the following statements and select the
incorrect ones.
I. all prokaryotic organisms were grouped together
under kingdom Monera.
II. The unicellular eukaryotic organisms were placed
in kingdom Protista.
III. Chlorella and Chalamydomonas, both have cell
walls.
IV. Paramecium and Amoeba lack cell walls.
V. Kingdom-Protista has brought together
Chlamydomonas and Chlorella with Paramecium
and Amoeba.
(a) I, II, and III (b) I and III
(c) III, IV and V (d) None of these
3. Which of the following bacteria play a main role in
recycling the nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, iron
and sulphur?
(a) Chemoheterotrophic bacteria
(b) Chemolithoautotrophic bacteria
(c) Parasitic bacteria (d) Saprophytic bacteria
4. Red tides develop in coastal water is mainly due to the
presence of
(a) dinoflagellates (b) euglenoid forms
(c) diatoms and desmids (d) slime moulds.
5. Male and female gametophytes are independent and
free-living in
(a) mustard (b) castor
(c) Pinus (d) Sphagnum.
6. Oogamous means
(a) fusion between female and male gametes, both
of similar size.
Useful for National and All State Level PMTs

3. Statement 1 : In Golgi complex, the cisternae have
cis face and trans face.
Statement 2 : The cis face and trans face of Golgi
complex are called maturing face and forming face
respectively.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement
2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement
2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1
(c) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is
incorrect.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
18. allosteric modulation inhibits the action of enzymes by
(a) competitive inhibition
(b) increasing substrate concentrations
(c) by reacting with products of reaction
(d) changing enzyme concentrations.
19. Z is a phase of equational cell division, in which the
chromatin condenses into discrete chromosomes.
During this phase, nuclear envelope breaks down and
spindles forms at opposite ends of the cell. Identify
this phase.
(a) Interphase (b) anaphase
(c) Telophase (d) Prophase
20. During synthesis phase of cell cycle
(a) the number of chromosome doubles
(b) the number of chromosome doubles only in case
of diploid cell
(c) the number of chromosome doubles only in the
case of haploid cell
(d) there is no change in chromosome number.
21. Which of following is necessary in the process of
facilitated diffusion?
(a) Concentration gradient
(b) Carrier protein
(c) Hydrophilic moeity (d) all of these
22. Which of the following occurs during manganese
toxicity in plants?
(a) Reduction in uptake of iron and magnesium.
(b) appearance of brown spots surrounded by
chlorotic veins.
(c) Inhibition of Ca
2+
ions translocation in the shoot
apex.
(d) all of these.
23. In photosynthetic plants, Light Harvesting Complex
(LHC) consists of
(a) one molecule of chlorophyll-a
(b) very few molecules of chlorophyll-a
(c) hundreds of pigment molecules bound to proteins
(d) chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-c, proteins and DNa.
10. Select the option which correctly matches the phylum
with its general features.
(a) annelida – Exhibitbilateraltruesymmetry,
metamerism and true coelom
(b) Echinodermata – Exhibittissuelevelorganisation
and radial symmetry
(c) arthropoda – Exhibit incomplete digestive
system and segmentation
(d) None of these
11. Which of the following is incorrect for animals
belonging to same class as Trygon?
(a) Presence of placoid scales.
(b) absence of air bladder.
(c) Presence of cartilaginous endoskeleton.
(d) Notochord persistent only at larval stage, after
that it disappears.
12. Biomagnification of DDT in an aquatic food chain
starting from water having a concentration of 0.003
ppm may go, in fish eating birds, upto
(a) 2 ppm (b) 25 ppm
(c) 50 ppm (d) 100 ppm.
13. Match column - I with column - II and select the
correct option from the codes given below.
Column - I Column - II
a. apple (i) Persistant bracts
B. Coconut (ii) Fleshy thalamus
C. Jackfruit (iii) Pulpy endocarp
D. Guava (iv) Stony endocarp
E. Pineapple (v) Fleshy perianth
(a) a - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (v), E - (i)
(b) a - (v), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (iv), E - (ii)
(c) a - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (v), E - (iv)
(d) a - (ii), B - (iv), C - (v), D - (iii), E - (i)
14. In plants X and y, a slender lateral branch arises from
the base of the main axis and after growing aerially
for sometimes, arch downwards to touch the ground.
X and y are
(a) Mint and Jasmine (b) Pistia and Eichhornia
(c) Strawberry and Rose
(d) Bougainvillea and Ruscus.
15. Collenchymatous cells have thickened corners due to
the deposition of
(a) cellulose (b) hemicellulose
(c) pectin (d) all of these.
16. Which of the following forms interfascicular cambium?
(a) Medullary rays to xylem cambium.
(b) Medullary rays to intrafascicular cambium.
(c) Medullary rays to lateral fascicular cambium.
(d) Endodermis to intrafascicular cambium.
17. Read the given statements and select the correct
option.

4. 24. Example of oxidative decarboxylation is pyruvate
(a) oxidised to carbon dioxide
(b) subsidised to oxygen
(c) oxidised to oxygen
(d) subsidised to carbon dioxide.
25. Plant growth regulators (PGRs) or plant hormones are
generally
(a) produced from many parts of plant
(b) produced from shoot apices and stem apices
(c) produce single effect
(d) basic in nature.
26. Refer to the figure showing
gastric glands and select the
correct statement for a – D.
(a) a is present throughout
the epithelium and
secretes mucus.
(b) B secretes hydrochloric
acid and castle intrinstic
factor.
(c) C secretes gastric digestive
enzymes.
(d) D produces serotonin and
histamine.
27. Select the correct option for P, Q and R that completes
the given data regarding partial pressure of O2 and
CO2.
Partial
pressure
of gases
(mmHg)
De
oxygenated
blood
Oxygenated
blood
Tissues
O2
CO2
40
P
Q
40
40
R
Choose the correct option for a, B and C to complete
the given data.
(a) P-40, Q-95, R-40 (b) P-45, Q-95, R-45
(c) P-35, Q-95, R-45 (d) P-35, Q-95, R-95
28. atrio-ventricular valves, bicuspid and tricuspid, opens
when
(a) blood from the pulmonary artery and vena
cava flows into the left and right ventricles,
respectively
(b) blood from the pulmonary vein and aorta flows
into the right and left ventricles, respectively
(c) blood from the pulmonary vein and aorta flows
into the right and left atrium, respectively
(d) oxygen from the pulmonary vein and aorta flows
into the left and right atrium, respectively.
29. The pacemaker of heart is called so because
(a) it can change the contractile activity generated by
aV node
(b) it delays the transmission of impulse between the
atria and ventricles
(c) it gets stimulated when it receives neural signals
(d) it initiates and maintains the rhythmic contractile
activity of heart.
30. Renin - angiotensin - aldosterone System is
(a) triggered when juxta-glomerular cells of JGa
releases renin in response to various stimuli
(b) responsible for regulation of kidney function
(c) a powerful mechanism responsible for regulation
of functioning of heart
(d) both (a) and (b).
31. The part of the brain which is associated with strong
emotions is
(a) limbic system (b) medulla
(c) cerebellum (d) cerebral cortex.
32. Malleus, incus and stapes
(a) equalise the pressure on either sides of the ear
drum
(b) collect the vibrations in air which produce the
sound
(c) increase the efficiency of transmission of sound
waves to the inner ear
(d) all of these.
33. The new potential developed on postsynaptic
membrane
(a) is always inhibitory (b) is always excitatory
(c) may be excitatory or inhibitory
(d) is neither excitatory nor inhibitory.
34. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Calcitonin regulates the metabolism of calcium.
II. Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine
muscles.
III. Grave's disease is caused by thyroid gland.
IV. Vasopressin stimulates reabsorption of water in
renal tubules.
V. adrenaline and noradrenaline are the emergency
hormones.
(a) III, IV and V (b) I, II and V
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III, IV and V
35. How do steroid hormones work?
(a) They enter into target cells and binds with specific
receptor and activate specific genes to form
protein.
(b) They bind to cell membrane.
(c) They catalyse formation of aMP.
(d) None of these.

5. 36. Which of the following options correctly mentions
level of hormones during menstrual cycle?
13-14 Days 21
st
to 23
rd
Day
FSH LH Proges-
terone
FSH LH Proges-
terone
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
High
High
Low
Low
High
High
Low
Low
Low
High
Low
High
Low
Low
High
High
Low
Low
High
Low
High
Low
High
Low
37. Head region of the sperm contains
(a) nucleus and acrosome
(b) middle piece and neck region
(c) nucleus and tail
(d) middle piece and nucleus.
38. Why are polar bodies formed during oogenesis?
(a) They serve both as a dumping ground for extra
sets of chromosomes and ensure that the ovum
will have most of the cytoplasm.
(b) They rid the body of defective sets of chromosomes,
leaving the 'good' set within the ovum.
(c) They are merely the by-product of meiosis and
serve no function.
(d) They prevent the development of most sets of
multiple birth.
39. Read the given statements and select the correct
option.
Statement 1 : MTP is considered relatively safe
during the first trimester of pregnancy.
Statement 2 : Foetus becomes intimately associated
with the maternal tissues after the first trimester.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement
2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement
2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
40. The strength of the linkage between two genes is
(a) directly proportional to the distance between
them
(b) inversely proportional to the distance between
them
(c) dependent on the size of chromosomes
(d) changed after crossing over.
41. With respect to the polarity of coding strand, the
promoter site and the terminator site for transcription
are located at
(a) 3′ (downstream) end and 5′ (upstream) end,
respectively of the transcription unit
(b) 5′ (upstream) end and 3′ (downstream) end,
respectively of the transcription unit
(c) the 5′ (upstream) end
(d) the 3′ (downstream) end.
42. Which of the following is true regarding the
phenomenon of genetic drift?
(i) Random change in gene allele frequency
(ii) Occurs by chance
(iii) It is directional
(iv) Causes elimination of certain alleles
(v) Causes fixation of alleles
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (iii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
43. a scientist found that a particular gene was mutated
but the polypeptide coded by this gene had not
changed. The mutation probably involved which of
the following?
(a) Deletion of one nucleotide
(b) addition of a nucleotide
(c) Substitution of a nucleotide
(d) addition of three nucleotides which form a codon.
44. The class of drugs known for their effects on
cardiovascular system of the body is
(a) amphetamines (b) barbiturates
(c) cannabinoids (d) opioids.
45. When breeding is between unrelated animals,
including individuals of the same breed but having no
common ancestors for 4-6 generations, it is called
(a) out-crossing (b) inbreeding
(c) cross-breeding
(d) interspecific hybridisation.
46. Select the false statement.
(a) Hybrid maize, jowar, and bajra have been
successfully developed in India.
(b) Saccharum barberi was originally grown in north
India, but had poor sugar content and yield.
(c) agriculture accounts for approximately 33%
of India's GDP and employs nearly 62% of the
population.
(d) None of the above
47. Biogas is pathogen free because
(a) anaerobic digestion removes pathogens like
bacteria
(b) it is toxic to pathogens
(c) during decomposition, it produces antibiotics
(d) cattle dung is pathogen free.
48. Statins used as blood cholesterol lowering agents are
extracted from
(a) algae (b) yeast
(c) virus (d) bacteria.

6. 49. Identify a, B, C and D in the given diagram of E.
coli cloning vector pBR322 and select the correct
statement.
(a) The recognition sequence of a is 5′ GaaTTC 3′
and 3′ CTTaaG 5′
(b) B acts as a selectable marker.
(c) C is extracted from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens.
(d) D marks the start of the replication.
50. In the construction of a recombinant DNa molecule,
DNa ligase helps in
(a) formation of phosphodiester bond between two
DNa fragments
(b) formation of phosphodiester bonds between
complementary sticky ends of DNa fragments
(c) ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases
(d) none of these.
51. Why Bt toxin is not toxic to human beings?
(a) The toxin recognises only insect specific targets
(b) Bt toxin activation requires temperature above the
human body temperature
(c) Bt toxin formation from pro Bt toxin which requires
pH lower than one present in human stomach
(d) Conversion of pro Bt toxin takes place only in
highly alkaline condition
52. an example of gene therapy is
(a) production of injectable hepatitis-a vaccine
(b) introduction of the genes for adenosine deaminase
in a person suffering from SCID
(c) production of test-tube babies by artificial
insemination
(d) all of these.
53. Partial regulators
(a) can regulate body temperature to larger extent of
environmental condition
(b) can regulate body temperature to limited extent
of environmental condition
(c) can fully regulate their internal environment
(d) none of these.
54. age structure of a population influences population
growth because
(a) different age groups have different reproductive
capabilities
(b) different age groups have same reproductive
capabilities
(c) more young individuals indicate decreasing
population
(d) all of these.
55. Genetic diversity is the measure of
(a) variety in the number and richness of the species
of a region
(b) variety of different life forms in ecosystem
(c) variety of the genetic information contained in the
organisms
(d) none of these.
56. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?
(a) Hydrocarbons (b) Smog
(c) Particulate matter (d) automobile exhausts
57. Which of the following strategy is not a correct
approach to reduce global warming?
(a) Reducing the greenhouse gas emission by limiting
the use of fossil fuels.
(b) Increase the vegetation cover, particularly the
forest for photosynthetic utilisation of CO2.
(c) Minimising the use of nitrogen fertilizers in
agriculture for reducing NO2 emission.
(d) Increasing the use of air conditioners, refrigeration
units and production of plastic.
58. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
cell structure?
(a) Plant cells have cell walls, whereas animal cells do
not.
(b) Ribosomes are the main sites of energy production
for the cell.
(c) Lysosomes function in the digestion of cellular
waste products.
(d) Many cellular organelles are interrelated through
an endomembrane system.
59. If a human red blood cell was placed in distilled water
then it would
(a) shrivel (b) plasmolyse
(c) dehydrate (d) not be affected.
60. The two fundamental processes that govern the
dynamics of an ecosystem are
(a) solar radiation and the carbon cycle
(b) photosynthesis and respiration
(c) the carbon cycle and photosynthesis
(d) energy flow and nutrient cycling.
61. a host plant produces a toxin that is lethal to aphids
feeding on its leaves. Over time, some of the aphids
become immune to the toxin. In response, the host

7. plant begins to produce a different toxin that is lethal
to aphids. This is an example of
(a) commensalism (b) predation
(c) mutualism (d) coevolution.
62. Which of the following statements about meiosis is
correct?
(a) Only somatic cells undergo meiosis.
(b) Meiosis restores the original diploid condition of
a population.
(c) Meiosis typically results in genetic variation
among the gametes produced.
(d) The products of meiosis are always four cells
identical to the parent cell.
63. Parents : Brown mice × White mice with
with short tails long tails
F1 generation : all offspring brown with long tails
F2 generation : 292 mice brown with long tails
97 mice brown with short tails
103 mice white with long tails
36 mice white with short tails
The results of the above cross indicate that among
the original parents
(a) one was homozygous dominant for coat colour
and length, whereas the other was homozygous
recessive for both traits
(b) one was homozygous dominant for coat colour and
homozygous recessive for tail length, whereas the
other was homozygous recessive for coat colour
and homozygous dominant for tail length
(c) one was homozygous dominant for both traits,
whereas the other was heterozygous for both
traits
(d) one was homozygous recessive for both traits,
whereas the other was heterozygous for both
traits.
64. The human skin contains all of the following receptors
except
(a) pain receptors (b) pressure receptors
(c) thermoreceptors (d) chemoreceptors.
65. The process by which species from different evolutionary
lineages come to resemble each other as a result of
living in very similar environment is known as
(a) adaptive radiation (b) convergent evolution
(c) allopatric speciation
(d) punctuated equilibrium.
66. If a population exceeds the carrying capacity of the
ecosystem, the most likely outcome would be
(a) an increase in resources to meet its needs
(b) extinction of the species
(c) an eventual decline in population size
(d) a steady increase in population size.
67. Which of the following procedures would not be likely
to lead the production of recombinant DNa?
(a) Projectile bombardment of cells with DNa coated
particles from a gene gun.
(b) Transformation of bacterial cells with naked DNa
from human cells.
(c) Transformation of bacteria using phage particles
(bacterial viruses).
(d) The removal of a single somatic cell from a carrot
and regenerating an entire plant from the cell
through tissue culture.
68. Which of the following statements does not contribute
to the evidence in support of evolution?
(a) Species thought to be related through evolution
from a common ancestor show many anatomical
similarities.
(b) The stages of embryological development in
animals are quite similar among highly diverse
types of organisms.
(c) Similarities in chromosome structure, DNa
sequence, and amino acid sequence suggest
relationships among organisms descending
through evolution from a common ancestor.
(d) The observation that the most well adapted
individuals do not always produce the most fit
offspring.
69. Whichofthefollowingstatementsisnotausefulfeature
of restriction fragment length polymorphism?
(a) They can be used to detect single gene mutations
in human DNa.
(b) They can be used prenatally to analyse foetal cells
for genetic disorders.
(c) They can be used to amplify large quantities of a
single gene through use of the polymerase chain
reaction.
(d) They can be used to detect variation in DNa
sequences among individuals.
70. In which of the following groups would you place a
plant which produces spores and embryos but lacks
seeds and vascular tissue?
(a) Fungi (b) Bryophytes
(c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms.
71. The amount of nitrogen and phosphorous cycling
through an ecosystem is greatly affected by local
environmental conditions, such as heavy rainfall or
the removal of large numbers of plants. The amount
of carbon in an ecosystem is seldom significantly
affected by such factors because
(a) plants make their own carbon compounds through
photosynthesis
(b) plants absorb large amounts of carbon from the
soil

8. (c) bacteria in the soil absorb large amounts of
carbon
(d) the primary source of carbon is the atmosphere,
whereas much nitrogen and phosphorous come
from the soil.
72. Most recessive sex-linked traits, such as colour-
blindness, show up more frequently in males than
females because
(a) males have no corresponding allele on their
X chromosome to mask the allele carried on their
y chromosome
(b) males have no corresponding allele on their
y chromosome to mask the allele carried on their
X chromosome
(c) females always carry at least one dominant
allele for sex-linked traits because they have two
X chromosomes.
(d) females compensate by 'turning off' the recessive
allele through dosage compensation.
73. The water runoff from an area under study showed
a very high concentration of nitrate ions. This is an
indication of
(a) very heavy rainfall (b) drought
(c) total cut down of trees
(d) excessive growth of trees.
74. In the sigmoid growth curve given below,the alphabets
indicate the sequence of events. Choose the correct
option where the alphabet specifies the event.
(a) a = phase of slow growth
B = phase of exponential growth
C = phase of diminishing growth
D = stationary phase
(b) a = phase of rapid growth
B = phase of diminishing growth
C = stationary phase
D = phase of slow growth
(c) a = diminishing growth
B = exponential growth
C = slow growth
D = stationary growth
(d) a = stationary phase
B = phase of slow growth
C = phase of rapid growth
D = phase of diminishing growth
75. The secondary structure of proteins whose
conformation may be an alpha helix is due to
(a) the hydrogen bonds between a carboxyl group
of one amino acid and the NH group of another
amino acid
(b) the hydrogen bonds between variable groups
(c) the interactions between hydrophobic and
hydrophilic variable groups
(d) the interactions between the positively and
negatively charged variable groups.
76. Monocotyledons and dicotyledons are the two
subdivisions of flowering plants. Monocotyledons are
distinguished from dicotyledons because monocots
possess
(a) floral structures in multiples of fours and fives
(b) long taproots and parallel venation in their
leaves
(c) netted leaf venation and floral structures in
multiples of three.
(d) parallel leaf venation and fibrous roots.
77. Which of the following statements is true concerning
plants that utilize C4 photosynthesis?
(a) They only open their stomate at night.
(b) They use bundle sheath cells to separate the
Calvin cycle from the atmosphere.
(c) They use rubisco (ribulose bisphosphate
carboxylase oxygenase) to capture carbon dioxide
from the atmosphere.
(d) They use lenticels exclusively for gaseous exchange
in order to conserve water.
78. Which of the following statements about antibodies
is false?
(a) antibodies are produced by different
combinations of soluble proteins in the blood
called complement.
(b) When antibodies bind to a bacterial cell, it may
keep that cell from adhering to host cells.
(c) By binding to antigens, antibodies mark those
antigens for destruction by macrophages.
(d) None of these.
79. During muscle contraction
(a) calcium ions combine with troponin to cause a
conformational change in tropomyosin
(b) myosin and actin slide together because of the
binding and contraction of actin filaments
(c) tropomyosin wraps around myosin and blocks the
binding sites between actin and myosin
(d) Both (a) and (b).

9. 80. Refer to the given figure and
select the correct statement
from the following.
(a) a is a stalk that
attaches ovule to the
placenta.
(b) B is mass of cells having
abundant reserve food
material.
(c) C is female gametophyte formed from a megaspore
through reduction division.
(d) D represents basal part of the ovule.
81. Sweet potato is homologous to
(a) Ginger (b) Turnip
(c) Potato (d) Colocasia.
82. Which of the following statements about the "blender
experiment" is not true?
(a) The experiment preceded Watson's and Crick's
elucidation of DNa structure.
(b) Hershey and Chase used radioactive sulphur and
phosphorus to follow the protein and nucleotides
in their experiment.
(c) They discovered that while different strains of
bacteria have different percentage of nitrogen
bases, the percent of adenine and the percent of
thymine are equal, as are the percent of guanine
and cytosine.
(d) The experiment lent strong credence to the idea
that DNa is the hereditary material, at least for
viruses.
83. Identify different types of placentation and select the
incorrect option.
(a) Type a placentation is found in marigold and
sunflower
(b) In type B plancentation, placenta forms a ridge
along the ventral suture of the ovary
(c) Type C placentation is present in Primrose, ovules
are born on central axis.
(d) In type D placentation, there is presence of false
septum.
84. Fatty acids and glycerol are absorbed in
(a) duodenum (b) ileum
(c) jejunum (d) large intestine.
(C) (D)
(a) a and D respire mainly through body wall.
(b) B and C show radial symmetry.
(c) a and B have cnidoblasts for self-defence.
(d) C and D have a true coelom.
88. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged and for
its recovery which cartilage is preferred
(a) elastic cartilage (b) hyaline cartilage
(c) calcified cartilage (d) fibrous cartilage.
89. Non-cellular layer that connects inner surface of the
epithelial tissue to the connective tissue is
(a) basement membrane(b) epidermis
(c) dermis (d) either (b) or (c).

10. 90. Which one of the following statements about all the four
of Spongilla, leech, dolphin and penguin is correct?
(a) Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining
three are poikilothermic.
(b) Leech is a fresh water form while all others are
marine.
(c) Spongilla has special collared cells called
choanocytes, not found in the remaining three.
(d) all are bilaterally symmetrical.
91. When a bacteriophage, in its lytic phase, carries some
of the bacterium partially digested chromosome with
it to another host cell, the process is called
(a) generalised transduction
(b) conjugation
(c) transformation (d) specialised transduction.
92. The heart-shaped fern prothallus is
(a) saprophyte (b) sporophyte
(c) gamete (d) gametophyte.
93. The difference between alburnum and duramen is the
presence in the former of
(a) companion cell (b) living cells
(c) raw cells (d) lignified cells.
94. a cell is equally permeable to sucrose solution & NaCl
solution. First the cell is put in 0.6 M sucrose solution
there is no change in size but when put in 0.6 M NaCl
solution the size will
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remain same (d) can’t be said
95. Three of the following statements regarding cell
organelles are correct while one is wrong. Which one
is wrong?
(a) Lysosomes are single membraned vesicles budded
off from Golgi apparatus and contain digestive
enzymes.
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a network
of membranous tubules and helps in transport,
synthesis and secretion.
(c) Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes, lack
pigment but contain their own DNa and protein
synthesizing machinery.
(d) Sphaerosomes are single, membrane bound and
are associated with synthesis and storage of
lipids.
96. Emasculation is achieved by the removal of
(a) entire gynoecium (b) stigma
(c) anthers (d) petals and sepals.
97. Some criteria for classifying animals are
I. Presence or a absence of coelom.
II. Presence or absence of true tissue organisation.
III. Presence of 2 or 3 tissue layers.
y
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (a)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (a)
36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (a)
46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (c)
56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (b)
66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (a)
76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (a)
81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (a)
86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (c)
96. (c) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (b)
nn

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