(1) The document provides a sample question paper for a postgraduate technology general ability test consisting of 120 multiple choice questions across 6 sub-tests covering quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, analytical ability, general knowledge, and thematic apperception.
(2) Each question carries 1 mark and answers must be marked on an answer sheet using a ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle for the best alternative among the 4 options given.
(3) Sample questions 1-30 provide examples of the types of quantitative, verbal, logical and technical questions that will be asked in the exam.
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1. Page 1
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SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
POSTGRADUATETECHNOLOGY
GENERALABILITYTEST—PAPER-I
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Max. Marks : 120
Total Questions : 120
This test comprises the following sub-tests.
(1) Quantitative Ability
(2) Communication Ability
(3) English Comprehension
(4) Analytical Ability
(5) General Knowledge and Current Affairs
(6) Thematic Apperception Test
(i) Each question carries one mark.
(ii) Answers are required to be marked only on the OMR/ICR Answer-Sheet, which shall be provided separately.
(iii) For each question, four alternative answers have been provided out of which only one is correct. Darken the
appropriate circle in the Answer-Sheet by using Ball Pen only on the best alternative amongst (a), (b), (c) or (d).
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. Three like parallel forces P, Q and R act at the corners of a triangle ABC. If their resultant passes through the ortho
centre of the triangle then
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
2. Auniform ladder rests in limiting equilibrium with one end on a rough floor, whose coefficient of friction is
and with the other against a smooth vertical wall. The inclination of the ladder to the vertical is
(a) 30°°°°° (b) 45°°°°° (c) 60°°°°° (d) None of the above
3. If a point moving under uniform acceleration describes successive equal distances in times t1
, t2
, t3
then
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
4. Two balls are projected from the same point in directions inclined at 600
and 300
to the horizontal. If they attain the
same height, the ratio of their velocities of projection is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) √3 : 1 (d) 1 : √3
5. A steamer is travelling due east at the rate of ‘u’ kmph. A second steamer is travelling at 2u kmph in a direction θ
north of east and appears to be travelling northeast to a passenger on the first steamer. Then sin 2θ is equal to
(a) (b) (c) (d)
P
sin A
Q
sin B
R
sin C
= =
P
sin 2A
Q
sin 2B
R
sin 2C
= =
P
tan A
Q
tan B
R
tan C
= =
= =
P
a
Q
b
R
c
√3
2
1
t1
1
t2
1
t3
2
t1
+ t2
+ t3
+ + =
1
t1
1
t2
1
t3
3
t1
+ t2
+ t3
-- + =
1
t1
1
t2
1
t3
2
t1
+ t2
+ t3
-- + =
1
t1
1
t2
1
t3
1
t1
+ t2
+ t3
-- + =
1
2
√3
2
2
3
3
4
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6. The least value of the portion of the tangent to the ellipse
intercepted between the axes is
(a) 25 (b) 7 (c) 17 (d) 1
7. is equal to
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1--
8. The length of the arc of the parabole y2
= 4x cut off by the latus rectum is
(a) √2 + log (√2 + 1) (b) 2 + log (√2 + 1)
(c) √2 + log (3 + 2√2) (d) 2[√2 + log (√2 + 1)]
9. If f " (x) is continuous at x = 0 and f "(o) = 4 then the value of
Lim is equal to
x→o
(a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 2
10. Cos--1
(1 + x2
-- x) dx =
(a) -- log2
(b) -- log1/2
(c) -- log2
(d) -- log1/2
11. The sum of the series
log4
2 -- log8
2 + log16
2 -- . . to ∞ is
(a) 1 -- loge
2 (b) loge
2 -- 1 (c) 1 + loge
2 (d) log2
e
12. If the ratio of the roots of the equation
ax2
+ bx + c = 0 is r then is equal to
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13. The singular solution of the differential equation
(a) y2
= ax (b) y2
= 4ax (c) x2
= ay (d) x2
= 4ay
14. The e centricity of the hyperbola
x2
-- 4y2
= 1
is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15. A vector perpendicular to both the vectors
A
→→→→→
= 4i -- j + 3k and B
→→→→→
= 3i + j -- k is
(a) -- 2i -- 13j + 7k (b) 2i + 13j -- 7k (c) --2i + 13j + 7k (d) 2i -- 13j + 7k
y = px + , is
a
p
dy
dx
p =( )
∫0
1
π
2
π
4
π
4
π
2
r + 1
r
( )
2
a2
bc
b2
ca
c2
ab
1
abc
√5
2
2
√5
√5
4
√5
8
x2
16
y2
9+ = 1
dx
x2
√x2
-- 1∫√2
2
1
√2
√3
2
--
1
√2
1
2
--
√3
2
√2 -- 1
√2
2f(x) -- 3f(2x) + f(4x)
x2
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16. The particular integral of
(D2
-- 2D) y = ex
sin x is
(a) -- ex
sin x (b) ex
cos x (c) -- ex
cos x (d) None of these
17. There are 10 bags B1
, B2
, . . . B10
which contain 21, 22, . . 30 different articles respectively. The total number of
ways to bring out 10 articles is
(a) 31C20
-- 21C10
(b) 31C20
(c) 31C21
(d) None of these
18. The area bounded by the curve
y = x2
and y = is
(a) π -- (b) π + (c) π -- (d) π +
19. If
sin--1
x + sin--1
y + sin--1
z =
then the value of
x100
+ y100
+ z100
-- is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
20. If
x y z
∆r
= 2r
2×3r
3×4r
2(2n
--1) 3(3n
--1) 4(4n
--1)
then the value of
∆r
is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) n (d) x + y + z
21. If the mean and variance of a binomial variable x are 2 and 1 respectively, then the probability that x takes greater
than one is equal to
(a) (b) (c) (d)
22. The value of
Sin Sin Sin is equal to
(a) (b) (c) (d)
23. In a ∆ABC,
then ∠c is equal to
(a) (b) (c) (d)
∑
n
r=1
11
12
11
14
11
16
11
15
π
14
3π
14
5π
14
1
2
1
4
1
6
1
8
π
8
π
7
π
6
π
3
1
a + b
1
b + c
3
a + b + c+ =
1
2
1
2
2
1 + x2
1
3
1
3
2
3
2
3
3
x101
+ y101
+ z101
315
2
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24. If
x2
-- 2pxy --y2
= 0 and
x2
-- 2qxy --y2
= 0
bisect angles between each other, then
(a) p + q = 1 (b) pq = 1 (c) pq + 1 = 0 (d) p2
+ pq + q2
= 0
25. Evaluate
Lim n[1 -- log (1 + 1
/n
)n--1
] is
n→∞
(a) 0 (b) e (c) 1 (d)
26. A, 1,200-kilogram car travelling at 10. metres per second hits a tree and is brought to rest in 0.10 second. What is the
magnitude of the average force acting on the car to bring it to rest?
(a) 1.2 × 102
N (b) 1.2 × 103
N (c) 1.2 × 104
N (d) 1.2 × 105
N
27. How far will a brick starting from rest fall freely in 3.0 seconds?
(a) 15 m (b) 29 m (c) 44 m (d) 88 m
28. A net force of 10. newtons accelerates an object at 5.0 meters per second2
. What net force would be required to
accelerate the same object at 1.0 meter per second2
?
(a) 1.0 N (b) 2.0 N (c) 5.0 N (d) 50. N
29. A car travels 90. meters due north in 15 seconds. Then the car turns around and travels 40. meters due south in
5.0 seconds. What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the car during this 20 second interval?
(a) 2.5 m/s (b) 5.0 m/s (c) 6.5 m/s (d) 7.0 m/s
30. A 2.0 × 103
-kilogram car travels at a constant speed of 12 meters per second around a circular curve of radius
30 meters. What is the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of the car as it goes around the curve?
(a) 0.40 m/s2
(b) 4.8 m/s2
(c) 800 m/s2
(d) 9,600 m/s2
31. If the sum of all the forces acting on a moving object is zero, the object will
(a) Slow down and stop (b) Change the direction of its motion
(c) Accelerate uniformly (d) Continue moving with constant velocity
32. A 2.0 × 103
-kilogram car travels at a constant speed of 12 meters per second around a circular curve of radius
30 meters. As the car goes around the curve, the centripetal force is directed
(a) Toward the center of the circular curve
(b) Away from the center of the circular curve
(c) Tangent to the curve in the direction of motion
(d) Tangent to the curve opposite the direction of motion
33. The amount of work done against friction to slide a box in a straight line across a uniform, horizontal floor depends
most on the
(a) Time taken to move the box
(b) Distance the box is moved
(c) Speed of the box
(d) Direction of the box’s motion
34. ‘‘The unemployment rate increased to 6.8%, with employment rising by a big 0.6% or 68,000 during the month and
the labor force increasing by______.’’ The blank should be
(a) Less than 68,000 (b) 68,000
(c) More than 68,000 (d) Not enough information to answer
1
e
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35. Suppose the labor force is 15 million, the participation rate is 75% and unemployment is 10%. If the number of
discouraged workers increases by 1 million, then
(a) Unemployment falls to 9% (b) Unemployment rises to 11%
(c) The participation rate falls to 70% (d) The participation rate rises to 80%
36. An upper bound for the remainder Rn
of the series
is
(a) (b) (c) (d) log[log(log n)]2
37. It is true to say that the series
is
(a) divergent by the ratio test (b) absolutely convergent by the ratio test
(c) conditionally convergent by the ratio test (d) convergent by the Alternating Series Test
38. It is appropriate to show that the series
(a) converges by the nth Term Test
(b) converges by the Comparison Ratio Test with
(c) converges by the Comparison Test with
(d) diverges by D’Alembert’s Ratio Test.
39. Symbolically, a marginal probability is:
(a) P(AB) (b) P(BA) (c) P(B|A) (d) None of these
40. Suppose a sample population with N = 144 has µ = 24, what is the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean for
sample of size 25?
(a) 24 (b) 2
(c) 48 (d) Not possible to answer with the given information
41. When the null hypothesis is Ho
: µ = 42, the alternative hypothesis can be :
(a) H1
: µ ≥ 42 (b) H1
: µ < 42
(c) H1
: µ = 40 (d) H1
: µ ≠ 40
42. Suppose the non-institutionalized population over age 15 is 200 Lacks, 100 Lacks of whom are female, the labour
force is 150 Lacks, 60 Lacks of whom are female, and the number of people employed is 120 Lacks, 40 Lacks of
whom are female. The female participation rate is :
(a) 30% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 60%
Direction (Q. Nos. 43-47) : Each of the following sentences has been divided into four parts — (a), (b), (c) and (d) one
of them has an error. Choose the one with the error:
43. The College hall was packed / to its capacity / but when he started speaking, / there was pin-drop silence.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
∑
∞
n=10
(--1)n
√n
n + 4
∑
∞
n=2
1
n log n[log(log n)]2
1
log n
1
n log n
1
log(log n)
2n2
+ 7n
3n
(n2
+ 5n -- 1)
∑
∞
n=1
∑
∞
n=1
1
3n
∑
∞
n=1
1
n
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44. Sachin scored four boundaries / off four consecutive balls / in the last over / and India won the match.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
45. The banks decide / to open new branches / in rural areas / and they proceeded to do so.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
46. As time rolls on and on / the workers began to demand / increase in their wages / which they deserved.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
47. The farmers have suffered / so much / during the last year’s flood / that they have been slow to recover.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Direction (Q. Nos. 48-52) : Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate words/phrases:
48. Where in New York______when you were studying in Columbia University.
(a) had you lived (b) did you live (c) have you lived (d) do you live
49. I am writing on behalf of my colleagues who feel that they______by you in recent past.
(a) are neglected (b) had been neglected
(c) have been neglected (d) are being neglected
50. At the time of last election you______us an adequate supply of electricity.
(a) promised (b) would promise (c) have promised (d) none of the above
51. As soon as he got the telegram, he______for Bangalore.
(a) would leave (b) had left (c) left (d) has left
52. The journey took so long because we______the wrong road.
(a) took (b) had taken (c) would take (d) have taken
Direction (Q. Nos. 53-57) : Each of the following words in capitals is followed by four choices. Choose the one nearest
to it in meaning.
53. AMBIGUOUS
(a) offensive (b) doubtful meaning (c) beyond understanding (d) thoughtless
54. METROPOLITAN
(a) of a big city (b) an important politician (c) very powerful (d) fast moving
55. GULLIBLE
(a) easily fooled (b) very rich (c) glutton (d) indifferent
56. IRASCIBLE
(a) uncomfortable (b) at ease (c) nervous (d) irritable
57. DERELICT
(a) abonded (b) ancient (c) notorious (d) historical
Direction (Q. Nos. 58-62) : Each of the following words in capitals is followed by four choices. Choose the one
opposite in meaning to it.
58. GAIETY
(a) walk (b) race (c) wisdom (d) mourning
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59. MANIFEST
(a) a list (b) an account (c) conceal (d) sad
60. MORBID
(a) abnormal (b) weak (c) healthy (d) untidy
61. LANDGUID
(a) energetic (b) lazy (c) longish (d) base
62. JUBILANT
(a) untidy (b) happy (c) sad (d) cruel
Direction (Q. Nos. 63-67) : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the
correct option.
PASSAGE
There is one salient difference between education as understood by the Greeks and the popular ideas of education in our
own day. To the Greeks, education was primarily a training of the faculties that should fit man for the exercise of thought
and duties of citizenship. The modern world looks rather to the acquisiton of some skill or knowledge that is needed for a
career; it thinks more of the product than of the process. Acquaintance with facts counts more with the moderns while
mental completeness and grasp were prized by the Greeks above everything else. But mental completeness did not mean
to the Greeks intellectual discipline alone; it meant also a discipline and moulding of character, a training in public spirit, a
suppression of the individual, a devotion to civic ends. It is, on the one hand, mental illumination, but it also implies
refinement and delicacy of feeling, a scorn of what is self-seeking, ignoble, dishonourable — a scorn bred of loving
familiarity with poets and philosophers. Our nearest expression for this generous and many sided training is the word
‘Culture’. Culture, however, to many minds suggests a kind of polish, a superficial refinement. Besides, it has an air of
exclusiveness; it is thought of as the privilege of the favoured few.
63. What is the aim of education as understood by the ancient Greeks?
(a) to gain some skill or knowledge (b) to prepare for a career
(c) to learn the duties of citizenship (d) none of the above
64. What is the popular idea of education today?
(a) to prepare for a career (b) mental development
(c) physical development (d) both (b) and (c)
65. What did mental completeness mean to the Greeks?
(a) intellectual development only
(b) moulding of character
(c) training in public spirit
(d) both (b) and (c)
66. What does Culture mean to some minds?
(a) refinement of delicacy of feeling
(b) scorn of poets and philosophers
(c) a kind of polish, a superficial refinement
(d) none of the above
67. What does Greek Culture really mean?
(a) a link between learning and citizenship (b) an air of exclusiveness
(c) an acquaintance with facts (d) none of the above
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Direction (Q. Nos. 68-72) : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the
correct option.
PASSAGE
The emancipated women may enjoy rank, wealth, position, may even knowledge; they may know French and play on the
organ but what then? They do not know what to do with themselves. They rush here and there among outword things,
pushing, carrying, dragging, busy tying this knot and untying the other, blaming this person and cursing another. They sulk,
they sneer, they scold and complain bitterly against all and sundry that the elements are unfriendly and they are not having
a nice time. They waste their emotions on vulgar trivialities, and the frippery and the tinsel absorb all their energies. When
they escape into solitude, they have a strained, harassed, haunted, nervous look. A nameless sadness weighs them down
and they overtake them. Life has become what we see in pictures and Cinemas — an idiot’s tale, full of pain and piffle,
which signifies nothing.
68. According to the writer what is wrong with the emancipated women?
(a) They don’t enjoy their rank, wealth and position
(b) They do not know what to do with themselves
(c) They know French but play on the organ
(d) None of the above
69. Which meaningless activities do they indulge in?
(a) They learn French (b) They play on the organ
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
70. What is their Chief complaint in life?
(a) They are not having a nice time
(b) They blame some and curse others
(c) They rush here and there among outword things
(d) None of the above
71. What do they waste their energy on?
(a) On vulgar trivialities (b) On seeing pictures
(c) On wearing beautiful clothes (d) None of the above
72. What do they do in their solitude?
(a) They feel harassed and nervous (b) They become delirious and deranged
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Direction (Q. Nos. 73-77) : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the
correct option.
PASSAGE
What, then are the prospects of a single government for the whole world? Unfortunately they are not very promising. Two
attempts have been made within the last forty years to bring the nations together, first in the League of Nations, which
was created after the 1914-1918 war; secondly, in the United Nations Organisation which was the product of the last war.
Neither of these associations has, however, been very successful. The League of Nations was helpless to prevent the
second world war, and its successor, the United Nations Organisation seems to have no authority over the great powers.
How, indeed, could it have such authority when it is without armed forces to impose it. Many people think that the only
way in which the nations of the world can be brought together under the control of a single world government is through
the domination of the rest by a single power, as the European world was dominated by Rome in the centuries immediately
succeeding the birth of Christ.
73. What are the two recent examples of a world govt.?
(a) League of Nations (b) United Nations Organisations
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
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74. How did the League of Nations fail?
(a) It had no authority over the world powers (b) It could not prevent the Second World War
(c) It had no army of its own (d) None of the above
75. How can a World govt. control the whole world?
(a) It must have a lot of money (b) All powerful countries should come together
(c) It should be controlled by a strong dictator (d) None of the above
76. Why has U.N.O. failed?
(a) Veto power is used in the Security Council (b) All countries are not its members
(c) It has no army to enforce its authority (d) None of the above
77. Which event caused the birth of U.N.O.?
(a) Failure of the League of Nations to stop the Second World War
(b) Roman occupation of Europe
(c) The First World War
(d) None of the above
Direction (Q. Nos. 78-79) : Choose the letter of the diagram that best shows the relationship.
78. Lawyers, musicians, women
79. Literature, poetry, drama
Direction (Q. Nos. 80-83) : Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.
80. Complete the following :
SCOTLAND 27186453 LOTS 7293 LOAN 8367 AND________
(a) 786 (b) 867
(c) 686 (d) 886
81. Insert the missing number
372 258 441 ______
(a) 137 (b) 381
(c) 242 (d) 283
82. I was supposed to meet my friend at noon every Sunday. The first time he came at 12.30, the next time at 1.20, then
at 2.30, then at 4.00. When did he turn up the time after that?
(a) 4.50 (b) 5.20
(c) 5.50 (d) 6.10
83. Insert the correct group of letters
ACDE : OGHI : : ESTU : ?
(a) EPQU (b) ABCD (c) OGHK (d) XYZE
(a)
(b) (c) (d)
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Direction (Q. Nos. 84-85) : Study the statements and answer the question.
Six friends are sitting before a dinning table in the following order:
(i) B is sitting opposite to D
(ii) E is sitting opposite to C
(iii) A is on the extreme left end of the table facing F.
84. Who is sitting on the left hand side of A?
(a) D (b) C (c) B (d) E
85. Who is sitting beside B facing D and E.
(a) D (b) E (c) C (d) F
Direction (Q. Nos. 86-87) : Study the passage and choose the best answer for each question.
The Verma family is seated around a ten-place table. Each of two daughters is seated next to Mrs. Verma. Mr. Verma sits
next to one of the daughters. Two sons are seated so that no child sits next to another child.
86. If one son is seated next to Mr. Verma, the number of empty seats between the two sons is
(a) only one (b) only two
(c) only three (d) from one to three
87. If no son sits next to the father, then it is true that there is (are)
(a) no more than one seat between a daughter and a son
(b) three empty seats between sons
(c) no more than two empty seats between sons
(d) three seats between father and son
Direction (Q. Nos. 88-90) : Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.
88. Insert the missing number
2 3 4 6 1 2 2 0
1 8 4 8 1 0 —
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 0
89. Insert the correct group of letters
BAC : DEF : : ? : NOP
(a) HIJ (b) HJI (c) GIH (d) GHI
90. If LODES is coded as 46321, how will you code DOES?
(a) 4631 (b) 3621 (c) 2163 (d) 3126
Direction (Q. Nos. 91-97) : Study the statements and answer the questions.
(i) Five friends A, B, C, D, E went on a summer vacation to five cities namely Chennai, Calcutta, Delhi, Bangalore
and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport-bus, train aeroplane, car and boat from Mumbai.
(ii) C went to Bangalore by car and B went to Calcutta by air.
(iii) D travelled by boat, whereas E went by train.
(iv) Between Mumbai, Delhi and Chennai there is no bus service.
(v) The person who went to Delhi did not use boat to travel.
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PGTG
91. Which of the following mode of transport was used by the person who went to Delhi.
(a) Aeroplane (b) Bus (c) Train (d) Car
92. How did E travel and where did he go?
(a) By train to Delhi (b) By train to Bangalore
(c) By train to Hyaderabad (d) By train to madras
93. Which number does not fit in the series given below?
0, 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, 28, 37, 45
(a) 0 (b) 21 (c) 37 (d) 45
94. If in a certain code SAND is VDQG and BIRD is ELUG, then what is the code for LOVE?
(a) PRYG (b) ORTG (c) NPUH (d) ORYH
95. In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is three times that of his daughter and the age
of the son is half of his mother. The wife is twelve years younger to her husband and the brother is six years older
than his sister. What is the age of the mother?
(a) 40 years (b) 45 years (c) 50 years (d) 60 years
96. Ashok’s monthly salary is 50% of the monthly salary of Rajan. Rajan’s monthly salary is 75% of the monthly salary
of Subhash. If the monthly salary of all of them together is Rs. 30,500 what is Ashok’s monthly Salary?
(a) Rs. 12000 (b) Rs. 9000
(c) Rs. 6080.35 (d) Rs. 5382.35
97. ‘A factory worker has six children. No one else in the factory has six children’.
Which one of the following inferences is most correct?
(a) Everybody in the factory has children
(b) Some of the factory workers have more than six children
(c) All workers in the factory have six children each.
(d) Only one worker in the factory has exactly six children.
Direction (Q. Nos. 98-100) : Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.
98. The speed of a boat in still water is 8 Km./Hr. It can go 30 Km upstream and 44 Km downstream in 10 hours. Find
the speed of the stream?
(a) 2 Km./Hr. (b) 3 Km./Hr. (c) 4 Km./Hr. (d) None of these
99. Vijay is heavier than Ganesh and Mangal is lighter than Jayant. Prashant is heavier than Jayant but lighter than
Ganesh. Who amongst them is the heaviest?
(a) Ganesh (b) Jayant (c) Prashant (d) Vijay
100. Six books P, Q, R, S, T, U are placed side by side. R, Q, T have blue covers and other books have red covers. Only
S and U are new books and the rest are old. P, R, S are law reports, the rest are Gazetteers. Which two books are
old Gazetteers with blue covers?
(a) Q and R (b) Q and T (c) Q and U (d) T and U
Direction (Q. Nos. 101-102) : In these questions, you are required to complete the analogies.
101. Man : Biography : : Nation : ?
(a) History (b) Geography (c) People (d) Leader
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PGTG
102. Guilty : Past : : Hope : ?
(a) Present (b) Sorrow
(c) Past (d) Future
Direction (Q. Nos. 103-115) : Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.
103. Kyoto Protocol was signed in the year-
(a) 1979 (b) 1997
(c) 1989 (d) 1998
104. The concept of Biosphere reserves all over the world was introduced by-
(a) UNESCO (b) MOEF
(c) ICFRE (d) IUCN
105. The per capita forest area available in India and World average-
(a) 0.06 ha and 0.64 ha (b) 0.10 ha and 0.85 ha
(c) 0.2 ha and 0.65 ha (d) 0.60 ha and 0.64 ha
106. IGNFA, Dehradun stands for-
(a) Indian Gangetic National Forest Assocation
(b) Indira Gandhi Natural Forest Area
(c) Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy
(d) Indo-Gangetic National Fertilizer Academy
107. Satpura forests fall in the state of
(a) Maharashtra (b) Jharkhand (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Madhya Pradesh
108. Keoladeo National Bird sanctuary is at-
(a) Bharat Pur (b) Melghat (c) Panch marhi (d) Mahabaleshwar
109. Eastern Ghats are famous for-
(a) Mangrove forests (b) Rain forests (c) Shrubbed forests (d) Coniferous forests
110. Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology is situated at-
(a) Dehradun (b) Almora (c) Nainital (d) Chandigarh
111. Sundarban biosphere reserve is the home of-
(a) Elephants (b) White tigers (c) Gir lions (d) Royal Bengal tigers
112. Living and non-living bodies together constitute environment-
(a) True (b) False (c) Partially true (d) Not at all
113. The blowroom waste, while processing synthetic fibres, should be around
(a) 2.0% (b) 0.1% (c) 1.0% (d) 3.0%
114. The density of polyester fibres is
(a) more than cotton (b) less than nylon but more than polypropylene
(c) nearly equal to that of acrylic fibre (d) less than cotton but more than nylon
115. Which of the following welding process is preferred for wrought iron?
(a) Spot welding (b) Thermit welding (c) Forge welding (d) Laser welding
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PGTG
116. Which letters are missing?
I X
L
P
?A
?
C
(a) W, Y (b) S, K (c) T, E (d) I. J
117. Whichofthefollowingshapesfitsintothepuzzle?
A B C D
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
118. Which is the odd one out?
A B C D
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
119. Which of the patterns completes the series
A B C D
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
120. Which is the odd one out?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
A B C D
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