Internal Medicine Board Review Flashcards - This eBook contains 50 General Internal Medicine Flashcards. The Flashcards are review questions and can be used to study for medical board exams including the USMLE Step Exams and the ABIM Internal Medicine Exam. More questions can be found at www.knowmedge.com
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4. Tumor marker CA 19-9 is associated with
which cancer?
Question 1
Pancreatic cancer
Answer 1
5. What cancer is associated with tumor
marker CA 125?
Question 2
Ovarian cancer
Answer 2
6. What cancer is associated with HPV 16
and HPV 18?
Question 3
Cervical cancer
Answer 3
7. What trimester in pregnancy is ideal for
air travel?
Question 4
Second trimester
Answer 4
8. What level is increased on bloodwork in
a patient with folate deficiency?
Question 5
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Answer 5
9. What is the minimum timeframe that a
patient must live in a tropical country
before developing tropical sprue?
Question 6
1 month
Answer 6
10. What are 5 major medications that can
cause folate deficiency?
Question 7
Phenytoin, Trimethoprim, Metformin,
Methotrexate and Sulfasalazine
Answer 7
11. Which vitamin is most likely to be
deficient in a patient with celiac disease:
B1, B2, C, or D?
Question 8
Vitamin D
Answer 8
12. In addition to fat-soluable vitamins, what
else is not absorbed in patients with
celiac disease?
Question 9
Folic acid, Iron, Vitamin B12
Answer 9
13. Positive antibodies to tissue
transglutaminase suggests what
diagnosis?
Question 10
Celiac disease
Answer 10
14. What type of antidepressant is
imipramine?
Question 11
Tricyclic antidepressant
Answer 11
15. What is the first-line agent for major
depression?
Question 12
The first-line agent for major depression
is a selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor (SSRI).
Answer 12
16. True or False: One of the most common
side effects of selective serontonin
reuptake inhibitors is sexual dysfunction
including decreased libido
Question 13
True
Answer 13
17. What type of antidepressant is
duloxetine?
Question 14
Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake
inhibitor (SNRI)
Answer 14
18. After a patient falls, what is the strongest
predictor of a fracture?
Question 15
Presence or absence of osteoporosis
Answer 15
19. At what age is osteoporosis screening
initiated in women?
Question 16
65 years
Answer 16
20. In addition to age greater than 65 years,
what are the risk factors for
osteoporosis?
Question 17
Chronic glucocorticoid use, previous
fracture, low body weight (less than 127
lbs), cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol
consumption, family history of hip
fracture
Answer 17
21. What are the 3 main effects of serotonin
syndrome?
Question 18
Neuromuscular excitation, Autonomic
hyperactivity, and Altered mental status
Answer 18
22. What is the most common diagnostic
feature of serotonin toxicity?
Question 19
Clonus (usually at the ankle)
Answer 19
23. Of the following 3 pain medications,
which is most commonly implicated in
the development of serotonin
syndrome? Oxycodone, Tramadol,
Hydrocodone/acetaminophen
Question 20
Tramadol
Answer 20
24. What is the likely diagnosis in individuals
who restrict their caloric intake to a
minimum because of the fear of gaining
weight and losing their ideal body
image?
Question 21
Anorexia nervosa
Answer 21
25. What are the main signs and symptoms
of anorexia nervosa?
Question 22
Symptoms include dry skin, cold
intolerance, and soft downy hair (also
known as lanugo). Signs include
hypothermia, hypotension and
bradycardia
Answer 22
26. What is the preferred treatment for
eating disorders?
Question 23
Cognitive behavioral therapy. If
necessary after trying psychotherapy,
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
(SSRIs) may be prescribed.
Answer 23
27. At what age should cholesterol screening
be initiated in males?
Question 24
35 years of age
Answer 24
28. At what age is colorectal cancer
screening initiated in patients without
family history of colorecal cancer?
Question 25
50 years
Answer 25
29. According to the latest guidelines by the
USPSTF, when should Pap smears be
initiated?
Question 26
Age 21, regardless of sexual history
Answer 26
30. What are the major reversible causes of
dementia?
Question 27
Hypothyroidism, Vitamin B12 deficiency,
Depression, Polypharmacy, Normal
pressure hydrocephalus, or infections
like Syphilis, Lyme disease, Meningitis
and Whipple’s disease
Answer 27
31. What are the major degenerative causes
of dementia?
Question 28
Multi-infarct dementia, Dementia with
Lewy bodies, Parkinson’s,
Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s
disease) and Alzheimer’s dementia
Answer 28
32. How are reflexes affected in Subacute
combined degeneration and Multi-
infarct dementia?
Question 29
Increased reflexes
Answer 29
33. Which type of anti-psychotic (atypical or
typical) is preferred due to the reduced
risk of tardive dyskinesia?
Question 30
Atypical anti-psychotic
Answer 30
34. What type of anti-psychotic (atypical or
typical) are Haloperidol and
Fluphenazine?
Question 31
Typical anti-psychotic
Answer 31
35. What are some examples of symptoms
related to tardive dyskinesia?
Question 32
Involuntary movements of the trunk and
lower face including tongue rolling, lip
smacking, facial grimacing, and repetitive
chewing
Answer 32
36. Both postural and kinetic components
are seen in which tremor?
Question 33
Essential tremor
Answer 33
37. What is the typical frequency range of
essential tremors?
Question 34
7-10 Hertz
Answer 34
38. What are the main treatments for
essential tremors?
Question 35
Propranolol, Primidone, Gabapentin,
Alprazolam, or Topiramate
Answer 35
39. What are the 3 main indications for
prescribing prophylactic medication to
patients experiencing migraine
headaches?
Question 36
Beta blockers, Calcium channel blockers,
Riboflavin (Vitamin B2), Topiramate,
Amitriptyline
Answer 36
41. What type of urinary incontinence
occurs because of increased detrusor
bladder activity?
Question 38
Urge incontinence
Answer 38
42. What agents can be used in the
treatment of urge incontinence?
Question 39
Anti-cholinergic agents (e.g. oxybutynin,
tolteridine, and imipramine)
Answer 39
43. What do the 5 R's represent in the
motivational interviewing technique for
smoking cessation counseling?
Question 40
Relevance, Risk, Reward, Roadblock,
Repetition
Answer 40
44. HLA-2 allele presents to which CD
marker?
Question 41
HLA-2 allele presents to CD4 marker
Answer 41
45. HLA-1 allele presents to what CD
marker?
Question 42
HLA-1 allele presents to CD8 cell marker
Answer 42
46. (CD4 or CD8) is involved in cell mediated
immunity.
Question 43
CD4 is involved in cell mediated
immunity
Answer 43
47. What signs and symptoms are seen in
patients using phencyclidine in low
doses?
Question 44
Loss of coordination, slurred speech and
loss of balance
Answer 44
48. What signs and symptoms are seen in
patients using phencyclidine in high
doses?
Question 45
Depersonalization--a sensation of “living
a dream,” hallucinations and hostile or
aggressive behavior.
Answer 45
49. To what category of drugs does
phencyclidine belong?
Question 46
NMDA receptor antagonists
Answer 46
50. In overflow incontinence, is the detrusor
activity increased, decreased, or the
same as unaffected patients?
Question 47
Detrusor activity is decreased
Answer 47
51. Which type of urinary incontinence is
defined by increased detrusor (bladder
muscle) activity?
Question 48
Urge incontinence
Answer 48
52. If behavioral therapy (e.g. frequent
voiding, biofeedback) fails to control
urge incontinence, what is the mainstay
of pharmacological treatment?
Question 49
Anti-cholinergics (e.g. oxybutinin or
tolterodine)
Answer 49
53. What type of urinary incontinence is due
to increased intra-abdominal pressure
overwhelming the urinary sphincter
tone?
Question 50
Stress incontinence
Answer 50
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