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4. What are 5 major causes of
tubulointersitial kidney disease?
Question 1
Medications, Infections, Immunologic,
Malignancy, Obstructive
Answer 1
5. Significant fluid volume depletion is a
clinical clue for what renal process?
Question 2
Pre-renal azotemia
Answer 2
6. What kidney stone is most likely to
precipitate in alkaline urine?
Question 3
Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Answer 3
7. Arrange the order of blood flow: arteries,
afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent
arteriole
Question 4
The order of blood flow is: arteries--
>afferent arteriole-->glomerulus-->
efferent arteriole
Answer 4
8. True or False: HIV infection is often cited
as a complication of hemodialysis.
Question 5
False, unlike Hepatitis B and C, HIV is not
an oft-cited complication of
hemodialysis.
Answer 5
9. What protein:creatinine ratio would you
expect for patients with nephrotic
syndrome?
Question 6
Greater than 3.5
Answer 6
10. What is the initial treatment for benign
prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Question 7
Alpha antagonists followed by 5-alpha
reductase inhibitors
Answer 7
11. What are 4 examples of of alpha
antagonists?
Question 8
Examples of alpha antagonists are
doxazosin, tamsulosin, terazosin, and
alfuzosin
Answer 8
12. True or False: Renal cell carcinoma
occurs most often in females between 30
and 50 years of age.
Question 9
False; Renal cell carcinoma occurs more
often in males than females and usually
arises between 50 and 70 years of age.
Answer 9
13. What is the phosphorous level (high,
low, normal) in primary
hyperparathyroidism?
Question 10
Low
Answer 10
14. What effect does citrate found in
transfused blood have on ionized
calcium?
Question 11
Citrate lowers ionized calcium levels
Answer 11
15. What are 3 main symptoms that the
change in calcium levels due to citrate
causes?
Question 12
Convulsions, Arrhythmia, and Tetany
Answer 12
16. Metoprolol is a beta blocker that
(elevates/lowers) potassium levels.
Question 13
Elevates
Answer 13
17. Any medication that causes vasodilation
of the afferent arteriole would (increase
or decrease?) flow down to the
glomerulus and (increase or decrease?)
upstream arterial pressure.
Question 14
Increase; Decrease
Answer 14
18. Multiple myeloma is generally associated
with which type of RTA (Renal Tubular
Acidosis)?
Question 15
RTA Type 2
Answer 15
19. What Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA) will
cause hyperkalemia?
Question 16
RTA Type 4
Answer 16
20. Muddy brown casts in a urinalysis is a
clue towards which renal process?
Question 17
Acute tubular necrosis
Answer 17
21. Hyaline casts in a urinalysis is a clue
towards which renal process?
Question 18
Pre-renal azotemia
Answer 18
22. Fractional excretion of sodium greater
than 1% is usually an indication of what
renal process?
Question 19
Acute tubular necrosis
Answer 19
23. Kidney stones that are less than __ mm
in diameter usually pass spontaneously.
Question 20
5
Answer 20
24. What is the most common type of kidney
stone?
Question 21
Calcium oxalate stones make up around
65% of all stones.
Answer 21
25. What nephrotic syndrome is most often
associated with Hepatitis C and
Cryoglobulinemia?
Question 22
Membranoproliferative
glomerulonephritis
Answer 22
26. What nephrotic syndrome is most often
associated with heroin use, obesity,
sickle cell disease, African-Americans
Question 23
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Answer 23
27. What nephrotic syndrome is most often
associated with Hepatitis B, Gold,
Penicillamine, Solid tumors, NSAID use,
Syphilis?
Question 24
Membranous nephropathy
Answer 24
28. What is the gold standard for the
diagnosis of kidney stones?
Question 25
Noncontrast helical abdominal CT
Answer 25
29. In patients with chronic kidney disease,
severe arthritis and carpal tunnel
syndrome can result because of
deposition of what substance in the
joints?
Question 26
β2 microglobulin
Answer 26
30. What is the GFR level for Stage 4 Chronic
Kidney Disease?
Question 27
15-29 ml/min/1.73m2
Answer 27
31. What condition can occur in patients
with CKD who receive gadolinium?
Question 28
Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis (NSF)
Answer 28
32. What are the two main kinds of bone
problems that can occur with Stage 3
CKD?
Question 29
Renal osteodystrophy and adynamic
bone
Answer 29
33. In a patient who is hyperventilating,
what would you expect pH, CO2, and
ionized calcium levels to be (low, normal,
high)?
Question 30
High pH;
Low CO2;
Low ionized calcium
Answer 30
34. In management of Chronic Kidney
Disease, ACE inhibitors, such as lisinopril,
should be discontinued if they cause a
rise in creatinine by more than what
pecentage
Question 31
0.3
Answer 31
35. In CKD, erythropoietin should be given to
bring the hemoglobin up to a goal of
what level?
Question 32
11-12g/dL
Answer 32
36. True or False: Taking hydrochlorothiazide
is an effective way to decrease urine
calcium
Question 33
True
Answer 33
37. Bumpy contours of renal pelvis suggests
what condition?
Question 34
Analgesic nephropathy
Answer 34
38. What would you expect the
BUN:Creatinine ratio to be for patients
with pre-renal azotemia?
Question 35
Greater than 20:1
Answer 35
39. In pre-renal azotemia, what would you
expect the urine sediment to show?
Question 36
Hyaline casts
Answer 36
40. What are the 3 main causes of hematuria
without RBCs in the urine?
Question 37
Rhabdomyolysis, Paroxysmal nocturnal
hemoglobinuria (PNH), Excessive vitamin
C intake
Answer 37
41. How long after giving contrast does
Radiocontrast-induced nephropathy
usually occur?
Question 38
Within 48 hours
Answer 38
42. For a post-prostatectomy patient
experiencing back pain, if the prostate
serum antigen (PSA) level comes back
less than ________, a bone scan would
not be recommended.
Question 39
10ng/mL
Answer 39
43. In (Central or Nephrogenic) Diabetes
Insipidus, there is decreased production
of vasopressin that can arise in patients
after experiencing trauma or
neurosurgery
Question 40
Central
Answer 40
44. In (Central or Nephrogenic) Diabetes
Insipidus, there is decreased
responsiveness of the renal tubules to
vasopressin.
Question 41
Nephrogenic
Answer 41
45. True or False: RBC Casts in Urine are
seen in both IgA Nephropathy and Post-
Infectious GN
Question 42
True
Answer 42
46. For patients vomitting, urine sodium will
generally be less than what value?
Question 43
Urine sodium will generally be less than
20mEq/L for patients that are vomiting
as the body is trying to compensate and
hold onto sodium.
Answer 43
47. What test is needed to determine the
cause of metabolic alkalosis?
Question 44
Need to obtain a urine chloride sample
Answer 44
48. 24-hour urine protein level greater than
what level corresponds to nephrotic
syndrome
Question 45
3.5g
Answer 45
49. In the setting of metabolic alkalosis in
which renal related causes are
suspected, what value is looked at next
to determine the precise cause?
Question 46
Blood pressure level
Answer 46
50. For a patient with metabolic alkalosis, a
urine chroide value greater than what
indicates renal related causes?
Question 47
Greater than 20 mEq/L
Answer 47
51. What will the complement level be in IgA
Nephropathy?
Question 48
Normal
Answer 48
52. What will the complement level be in
Post-Infectious GN?
Question 49
Low
Answer 49
53. True or False: Hypokalemia and
hypercalcemia can also cause
nephrogenic DI
Question 50
True
Answer 50
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