Internal Medicine Board Review Flashcards - This eBook contains 50 Oncology Flashcards. The Flashcards are review questions and can be used to study for medical board exams including the USMLE Step Exams and the ABIM Internal Medicine Exam. More questions can be found at www.knowmedge.com

1. Oncology
Includes 50 Flashcards for Board Exam prep
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INTERNAL MEDICINE BOARD REVIEW FLASHCARDS

2. K N O W M E D G E
INTERNALMEDICINEBOARDREVIEWFLASHCARDS
Oncology
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4. ____________ is a cancerous tumor of
the connective tissue associated with
HIV and is generally characterized by
pink or purple tumors on the skin,
especially in the lower extremities.
Question 1
Kaposi Sarcoma
Answer 1

5. Any patient with HIV developing Kaposi
sarcoma should be started on _________
and may undergo localized radiation.
Question 2
Any patient with HIV developing Kaposi
sarcoma should be started on highly
active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) and
may undergo localized radiation.
Answer 2

6. What condition is associated with Reed-
Sternberg cell and positive CD15 and
CD30 cell markers?
Question 3
Hodgkin Lymphoma
Answer 3

7. What lymphoma is associated with
chromosomal translocation t(14,18)?
Question 4
Follicular lymphoma
Answer 4

8. What is the best step in the initial
treatment of ovarian cancer?
Question 5
Laparotomy for surgical staging and
surgical cytoreduction
Answer 5

9. In what age group is ovarian cancer most
frequently noted?
Question 6
Age greater than 60 years
Answer 6

10. How do Tamoxifen and Aromatase
Inhibitors differ in terms of their
mechanism of action?
Question 7
Tamoxifen blocks estrogen receptors
directly whereas Aromatase Inhibitors
affect the enzyme responsible for the
conversion of androgens to estrogen
Answer 7

11. Thromboembolic events are more
prevalent in patients on Tamoxifen or
Aromatase Inhibitors?
Question 8
Tamoxifen
Answer 8

12. Vaginal bleeding is more prevalent in
patients on Tamoxifen or Aromatase
Inhibitors?
Question 9
Tamoxifen
Answer 9

13. Tamoxifen and Raloxifene belong to
which class of medication?
Question 10
Selective estrogen receptor modulators
(SERMs)
Answer 10

14. What type of biopsy is performed to see
if axillary lymph node dissection is
required in patients with breast cancer?
Question 11
Sentinel lymph node biopsy
Answer 11

15. If a patient has a 2cm infiltrating ductal
carcinoma of the breast, what is the best
next step?
Question 12
Breast conserving therapy and radiation
therapy
Answer 12

16. For metastatic bone lesions in patients
with breast cancer, what intravenous
agent is typically administered?
Question 13
Bisphosphonate zoledronic acid
Answer 13

17. Where do hormonal therapies like
tamoxifen exert anti-estrogen activity?
Question 14
Breast tissue
Answer 14

18. Where do hormonal therapies like
tamoxifen exert partial estrogen agonist
activity?
Question 15
Uterus, Lipids and Bone
Answer 15

19. What treatment should be offered to
patients with breast cancer that is
HER2/neu positive?
Question 16
Trastuzumab (a monoclonal antibody
directed against the HER2/neu protein)
Answer 16

20. Gynecomastia is most likely to be seen in
which lung cancer?
Question 17
Large cell lung cancer
Answer 17

21. What paraneoplastic syndrome features
Ptosis, Miosis, Anhydrosis and with
which underlying lung cancer is it most
likely associated?
Question 18
Horner's syndrome, associated with
Squamous Cell carcinoma of the Lung
Answer 18

22. In what age group are osteosarcomas
typically found?
Question 19
Age 50 to 70 years
Answer 19

23. What are benign tumors of the adipose
tissue?
Question 20
Lipoma and Hibernoma
Answer 20

24. What chromosomal translocation is
associated with Burkitt's lymphoma?
Question 21
t(8,14) chromosomal translocation
Answer 21

25. What chromosomal translocation is
associated with acute promyelocytic
leukemia (APML)?
Question 22
t(15,17) chromosomal translocation
Answer 22

26. What is the most aggressive primary CNS
tumor?
Question 23
Glioblastoma multiforme
Answer 23

27. Where do pleomorphic
xanthoastrocytomas originate?
Question 24
Star-shaped glial cells, known as
astrocytes
Answer 24

28. What are 2 options for obtaining the
definitive diagnosis of CNS lymphoma?
Question 25
Stereotactic brain biopsy or
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis
Answer 25

29. CSF analysis in CNS lymphoma shows
what type of cell population?
Question 26
Monoclonal B cell population
Answer 26

30. High pro-insulin, high C peptide, and low
blood glucose levels are associated with
what condition?
Question 27
Insulinoma
Answer 27

31. What rash is associated with
glucagonoma?
Question 28
Necrolytic migratory erythema (NME)
Answer 28

32. The diagnosis of glucagonoma is
suggested with glucagon levels above
what value?
Question 29
Greater than 1000pg/mL
Answer 29

33. What is the chemotherapeutic agent of
choice for patients with metastatic
hepatocellular carcinoma?
Question 30
Sorefenib
Answer 30

34. What are 3 possible interventions for
localized hepatocellular carcinoma?
Question 31
- Surgical resection
- Liver transplantation
- Radiation therapy
Answer 31

35. What is the AFP level in the context of
cirrhosis that indicates a high likelihood
of developing hepatocellular carcinoma?
Question 32
Greater than or equal to 500ng/mL
Answer 32

36. What is the main most active
chemotherapeutic regimen used for
colon cancer?
Question 33
FOLFOX [5-fluorouracil, Folinic acid,
Oxaliplatin]
Answer 33

37. Patients with adenomatous polyposis
coli (APC) gene mutation are at an
increased risk of develpoing which
heritable disease?
Question 34
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
Answer 34

38. When is the first colonoscopy
recommended in a patient with familial
adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?
Question 35
Age 16
Answer 35

39. What syndrome is associated with
hamartomas of the small intestine and
pigmented lesions on the skin, lip, and
mouth?
Question 36
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Answer 36

40. After an EGD with biopsy confirms
gastric adenocarcinoma, what test
should be performed next to rule out
metastases?
Question 37
CT of the chest and abdomen
Answer 37

41. After EGD with biopsy confirms gastric
adenocarcinoma, what test should be
performed to determine the depth of the
invasion?
Question 38
Endoscopic ultrasound
Answer 38

42. After a patient has been treated for
colon cancer, what lab test is ordered to
detect recurrence of disease?
Question 39
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Answer 39

43. When the RET proto-oncogene is
present, approximately 95% of patients
develop what malignancy?
Question 40
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
Answer 40

44. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is
associated with which types of multiple
endocrine neoplasia (MEN)?
Question 41
MEN 2A and 2B
Answer 41

45. Which thyroid cancer is associated with
psammoma bodies?
Question 42
Papillary thyroid cancer
Answer 42

46. What are the 4 main myeloproliferative
disorders?
Question 43
- Polycythemia vera
- Essential thrombocythemia
- Primary myelofibrosis
- Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
Answer 43

47. What vitamin is often elevated with
myeloproliferative disorders?
Question 44
Vitamin B12
Answer 44

48. What vitamin should be given with
isoniazid (INH) treatment for latent
tuberculosis?
Question 45
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
Answer 45

49. In which of the 4 myeloproliferative
disorders is excess collagen or fibrous
tissue produced?
Question 46
Primary myelofibrosis
Answer 46

50. What is the best treatment of acute
promyelocytic leukemia (APML)?
Question 47
All-trans retinoic acid (APML)
Answer 47

51. What are the 3 agents that may be
indicated for the treatment of Chronic
Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?
Question 48
Fludarabine, Rituximab or Chlorambucil
Answer 48

52. What is an unfavorable prognostic factor
for acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
based on the patient's white blood cell
(WBC) count?
Question 49
>30,000/uL
Answer 49

53. What life-threatening condition can
result from the combination of tramadol
and sertraline?
Question 50
Serotonin syndrome
Answer 50

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