AIIMS Nursing Officer Exam Mode Questions

2. NURSING COMPETETIVE EXAMS
MODEL QUESTION PAPER
PART - E

3. Question - 101
Drug of choice for Ascariasis is:
a. Piperazine citerate
b. Bephenium Hydroxynaphthoate
c. Mebendazole
d. Albendazole

4. Question – 101(Answer)
Drug of choice for Ascariasis is:
a. Piperazine citerate
b. Bephenium Hydroxynaphthoate
c. Mebendazole
d. Albendazole

5. Question - 102
Peripheral neuritis is a side effect
of which antitubercular drug?
a. Rifampicin
b. Isoniazid
c. Streptomycin
d. Ethambutol

6. Question – 102 (Answer)
Peripheral neuritis is a side effect
of which antitubercular drug?
a. Rifampicin
b. Isoniazid
c. Streptomycin
d. Ethambutol

7. Question - 103
Gynaecomastia is one of the
side – effects of:
a. Spironolactone
b. Rifampicin
c. Penicillin
d. Bumetanide

8. Question – 103 (Answer)
Gynaecomastia is one of the
side – effects of:
a. Spironolactone
b. Rifampicin
c. Penicillin
d. Bumetanide

9. Question - 104
Use of oral contraceptive pills
by women reduces the risk of:
a. Breast cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Cervical cancer
d. Uterine cancer

10. Question – 104 (Answer)
Use of oral contraceptive pills
by women reduces the risk of:
a. Breast cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Cervical cancer
d. Uterine cancer

11. Question - 105
Bleeding between the
menstrual period is known as
a. Menorrhagia
b. Metarrhagia
c. Polymenorrhea
d. Dysmenorrhoea

12. Question – 105 (Answer)
Bleeding between the
menstrual period is known as
a. Menorrhagia
b. Metorrhagia
c. Polymenorrhea
d. Dysmenorrhoea

13. Question - 106
Retraction of foreskin is difficult
or impossible is known as ……
a. Cushingoid appearance
b. Hypoaldosteronism
c. Cryptorchidism
d. Phimosis

14. Question – 106 (Answer)
Retraction of foreskin is difficult
or impossible is known as ……
a. Cushingoid appearance
b. Hypoaldosteronism
c. Cryptorchidism
d. Phimosis

15. Question - 107
Atropine is commonly used prior
to administration of inhalant
anaesthetics to reduce
a. Muscle tone
b. Secretions
c. Nausea and Vomiting
d. All of the above

16. Question – 107 (Answer)
Atropine is commonly used prior
to administration of inhalant
anaesthetics to reduce
a. Muscle tone
b. Secretions
c. Nausea and Vomiting
d. All of the above

17. Question - 108
A low pitched, continuous
gurgling sounds caused by
secretions in the large airways is
called:
a. Wheezes
b. Coughing
c. Ronchi
d. Stridor

18. Question – 108 (Answer)
A low pitched, continuous
gurgling sounds caused by
secretions in the large airways is
called:
a. Wheezes
b. Coughing
c. Ronchi
d. Stridor

19. Question - 109
The most common AIDS
associated neoplasm is:
a. Kaposi Sarcoma
b. Non - Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Cervical cancer
d. Hodgkin lymphoma

20. Question - 109
The most common AIDS
associated neoplasm is:
a. Kaposi Sarcoma
b. Non - Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Cervical cancer
d. Hodgkin lymphoma

21. Question - 110
Which of the following drugs is
recommended for prevention of mother
to child transmission of HIV infection?
a. Tamoxifen Citrate
b. Didanosine
c. Indinavir
d. Navirapine

22. Question – 110 (Answer)
Which of the following drugs is
recommended for prevention of mother
to child transmission of HIV infection?
a. Tamoxifen Citrate
b. Didanosine
c. Indinavir
d. Navirapine

23. Question - 111
Shrinkage of cell size is known as:
a. Atrophy
b. Necrosis
c. Metastasis
d. Hypertrophy

24. Question – 111(Answer)
Shrinkage of cell size is known as:
a. Atrophy
b. Necrosis
c. Metastasis
d. Hypertrophy

25. Question - 112
A diagnosis of pneumonia is typically
achieved by which of the following
diagnostic test?
a. Arterial Blood Gas Analysis
b. Chest X - Ray
c. Blood Cultures
d. Sputum Culture and Sensitivity

26. Question – 112 (Answer)
A diagnosis of pneumonia is typically
achieved by which of the following
diagnostic test?
a. Arterial Blood Gas Analysis
b. Chest X - Ray
c. Blood Cultures
d. Sputum Culture and Sensitivity

27. Question - 113
Sharp waste should be disposed in
a. Black
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Yellow

28. Question – 113 (Answer)
Sharp waste should be disposed in
a. Black
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Yellow

29. Question - 114
ICDS was launched in:
a. 1955
b. 1968
c. 1975
d. 2005

30. Question – 114 (Answer)
ICDS was launched in:
a. 1955
b. 1968
c. 1975
d. 2005

31. Question – 115
Sucralfate is used in the treatment of
a. Fluid deficit
b. Peptic ulcer
c. Fluid overload
d. Peritionitis

32. Question – 115 (Answer)
Sucralfate is used in the treatment of
a. Fluid deficit
b. Peptic ulcer
c. Fluid overload
d. Peritonitis

33. Question – 116
A condition in which thoughts enter
into the mind of the person though he
does not want to think about them is
known as:
a. Obsession
b. Regression
c. Delusion
d. Suppression

34. Question – 116 (Answer)
A condition in which thoughts enter
into the mind of the person though he
does not want to think about them is
known as:
a. Obsession
b. Regression
c. Delusion
d. Suppression

35. Question – 117
Characteristic feature of schizoid
personality disorder is:
a. Rigid and Controlling
b. Submissive and Immature
c. Arrogant and Attention Seeking
d. Introverted and Emotionally Withdrawn

36. Question – 117 (Answer)
Characteristic feature of schizoid
personality disorder is:
a. Rigid and Controlling
b. Submissive and Immature
c. Arrogant and Attention Seeking
d. Introverted and Emotionally Withdrawn

37. Question – 118
Characteristic feature of schizoid
personality disorder is:
a. Rigid and Controlling
b. Submissive and Immature
c. Arrogant and Attention Seeking
d. Introverted and Emotionally Withdrawn

38. Question – 119
Kit supplied at subcentre is
called as:
a. Kit E
b. Kit B
c. Kit K
d. Kit M

39. Question – 119
Kit supplied at subcentre is
called as:
a. Kit E
b. Kit B
c. Kit K
d. Kit M

40. Question - 120
In polio vaccine vial, Inner square of
VVM is lighter than outer circle. It
means:
a. Discard the vaccine
b. Shake well before use
c. Bring the vaccine to room
temperature before using it
d. Use the vaccine

41. Question - 120
In polio vaccine vial, Inner
square of VVM is lighter than
outer circle. It means:
a. Discard the vaccine
b. Shake well before use
c. Bring the vaccine to room
temperature before using it
d. Use the vaccine

42. Question - 121
While administer eardrop in
infant, the nurse should pull the
pinna of the ear:
a. Downward & upward
b. Upward & backward
c. Downward & backward
d. Backward & upward

43. Question - 121
While administer eardrop in
infant, the nurse should pull the
pinna of the ear:
a. Downward & upward
b. Upward & backward
c. Downward & backward
d. Backward & upward

44. Question - 122
Which among the following
vaccine is stored in freezer:
a. BCG
b. Measles
c. DPT
d. TT

45. Question - 122
Which among the following
vaccine is stored in freezer:
a. BCG
b. Measles
c. DPT
d. TT

46. Question - 123
Temperature exposure indicator
of a vaccine is
a. VVM
b. VAP
c. VMV
d. VTI

47. Question - 123
Temperature exposure indicator
of a vaccine is
a. VVM
b. VAP
c. VMV
d. VTI

48. QUESTION - 124
Warfarin interferes with …..
a. Endothelial response
b. Platelet activation
c. Activation of thrombin
d. Collagen formation

49. QUESTION – 124 (Answer)
Warfarin interferes with …..
a. Endothelial response
b. Platelet activation
c. Activation of thrombin
d. Collagen formation

50. Question - 125
All of the following are mood
stabilizing agents, EXCEPT:
a. Lithium carbonate
b. Fluoxetine
c. Valproic acid
d. Carbamazepine

51. Question - 125
All of the following are mood
stabilizing agents, EXCEPT:
a. Lithium carbonate
b. Fluoxetine
c. Valproic acid
d. Carbamazepine

52. Question - 126
False sensory perception not
associated with real external
stimuli is called:
a. Concrete thinking
b. Hallucination
c. Delusion
d. Illusion

53. Question - 126
False sensory perception not
associated with real external
stimuli is called:
a. Concrete thinking
b. Hallucination
c. Delusion
d. Illusion

54. Question - 127
Each community development
block should have:
a. One community health centre
b. Two community health centre
c. Three community health
centre
d. Four community health centre

55. Question - 127
Each community development
block should have:
a. One community health centre
b. Two community health centre
c. Three community health
centre
d. Four community health centre

56. Question - 128
Which of the following is
considered the fifth vital sign in
emergency department:
a. Motor response
b. Response to pain
c. Verbal response
d. Pupillary reaction to light

57. Question - 128
Which of the following is
considered the fifth vital sign in
emergency department:
a. Motor response
b. Response to pain
c. Verbal response
d. Pupillary reaction to light

58. Question - 129
Neural tube defect can be
prevented by:
a. Supplementation with hydantoin
b. Supplementation with vit B
complex
c. Maternal folate supplementation
d. Prophylaxis of valproic acid

59. Question - 129
Neural tube defect can be
prevented by:
a. Supplementation with hydantoin
b. Supplementation with vit B
complex
c. Maternal folate supplementation
d. Prophylaxis of valproic acid

60. Question - 130
A patient have difficulty in
smelling, nurse assess for which
cranial nerve:
a. Cranial nerve I
b. Cranial nerve II
c. Cranial nerve III
d. Cranial nerve IV

61. Question - 130
A patient have difficulty in
smelling, nurse assess for which
cranial nerve:
a. Cranial nerve I
b. Cranial nerve II
c. Cranial nerve III
d. Cranial nerve IV

62. Question - 131
Nursing care in a child with
exstrophy of bladder is________
a. Dressing with normal saline
b. Dressing with petroleum jelly
c. Cover with clean plastic wrap
d. Catheterize the child

63. Question - 131
Nursing care in a child with
exstrophy of bladder is________
a. Dressing with normal saline
b. Dressing with petroleum jelly
c. Cover with clean plastic wrap
d. Catheterize the child

64. Question - 132
In which stage there are
formation of blisters:
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV

65. Question - 132
In which stage there are
formation of blisters:
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV

66. Question - 133
Common position in a child with
Tetralogy of Fallot:
a. Squatting
b. Prone
c. Supine
d. Side lying

67. Question - 133
Common position in a child with
Tetralogy of Fallot:
a. Squatting
b. Prone
c. Supine
d. Side lying

68. Question - 134
Commonest site used for IM
injection in infant is:
a. Vastus Latrelis
b. Gluteal muscle
c. Deltoid
d. Biceps

69. Question - 134
Commonest site used for IM
injection in infant is:
a. Vastus Latrelis
b. Gluteal muscle
c. Deltoid
d. Biceps

70. Question - 135
Angles used for giving IM
injection is:
a. 45 degree
b. 90 degree
c. 30 degree
d. 120 degree

71. Question - 135
Angles used for giving IM
injection is:
a. 45 degree
b. 90 degree
c. 30 degree
d. 120 degree

72. Question - 136
All are types of haemolytic
Anemia EXCEPT:
a. G6PD Deficiency
b. Thalassemia
c. Spirosis
d. Sickle cell anemia

73. Question - 136
All are types of haemolytic
Anemia EXCEPT:
a. G6PD Deficiency
b. Thalassemia
c. Spirosis
d. Sickle cell anemia

74. Question - 137
Normal pH range of blood is:
a. 7.35-7.45
b. 7.25-7.35
c. 7.45-7.55
d. 7.15-7.25

75. Question - 137
Normal pH range of blood is:
a. 7.35-7.45
b. 7.25-7.35
c. 7.45-7.55
d. 7.15-7.25

76. Question - 138
0.45% normal saline is the :
a. Hypotonic
b. Isotonic
c. Hypertonic
d. Colloid

77. Question - 138
0.45% normal saline is the :
a. Hypotonic
b. Isotonic
c. Hypertonic
d. Colloid

78. Question - 139
A patient complaining nausea
after having food. It is which type
of data:
a. Subjective
b. Objective
c. Personal
d. None of them

79. Question - 139
A patient complaining nausea
after having food. It is which type
of data:
a. Subjective
b. Objective
c. Personal
d. None of them

80. Question - 140
First day of menstrual cycle is 14
august. The EDD according to
negeles is:
a. 21 may
b. 14 June
c. 21June
d. 14 june

81. Question - 140
First day of menstrual cycle is 14
august. The EDD according to
negeles is:
a. 21 may
b. 14 June
c. 21June
d. 14 june

82. Question - 141
We will assess which lab value in
renal failure patient:
a. Serum creatinine
b. Serum calcium
c. Serum magnesium
d. Serum chloride

83. Question - 141
We will assess which lab value in
renal failure patient:
a. Serum creatinine
b. Serum calcium
c. Serum magnesium
d. Serum chloride

84. Question - 142
You will use which solution for
spillage of blood on the floor:
a. Chloride mixed solution
b. Phenol mixed
c. Cidex
d. formaline

85. Question - 142
You will use which solution for
spillage of blood on the floor:
a. Chloride mixed solution
b. Phenol mixed
c. Cidex
d. formaline

86. Question - 143
Which is the long acting insulin:
a. Glargine
b. NPH
c. Regular
d. Lispro

87. Question - 143
Which is the long acting insulin:
a. Glargine
b. NPH
c. Regular
d. Lispro

88. Question - 144
Cation present mostly in plasma
is:
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium

89. Question - 144
Cation present mostly in plasma
is:
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium

90. Question - 145
A patient receive highest oxygen
by:
a. Mask with reservoir bag
b. Venturi mask
c. Nasal cannula
d. Simple mask

91. Question - 145
A patient receive highest oxygen
by:
a. Mask with reservoir bag
b. Venturi mask
c. Nasal cannula
d. Simple mask

92. Question - 146
Pepsinogen secretes by:
a. Chief cells
b. Mast cells
c. Beta cells
d. Parietal cells

93. Question - 146
Pepsinogen secretes by:
a. Chief cells
b. Mast cells
c. Beta cells
d. Parietal cells

94. Question - 147
Normal bone cell is known as:
a. Osteocyte
b. Osteoblast
c. Osteoclast
d. Monocyte

95. Question - 147
Normal bone cell is known as:
a. Osteocyte
b. Osteoblast
c. Osteoclast
d. Monocyte

96. Question - 148
Precautions used when caring
for a rubella patient is:
a. Droplet
b. Contact
c. Universal
d. Hand washing

97. Question - 148
Precautions used when caring
for a rubella patient is:
a. Droplet
b. Contact
c. Universal
d. Hand washing

98. Question - 149
A women came with complaining
of recurrent uterine bleeding,
nurse action involves:
a. Cryotherapy
b. Prepare pap smear
c. Anti-haemorrhagic
d. Reassure the client

99. Question - 149
A women came with complaining
of recurrent uterine bleeding,
nurse action involves:
a. Cryotherapy
b. Prepare pap smear
c. Anti-haemorrhagic
d. Reassure the client

100. Question - 150
Effect of vasodilator includes:
a. Hypotension
b. Hypertension
c. Diuresis
d. Sweating

101. Question - 150
Effect of vasodilator includes:
a. Hypotension
b. Hypertension
c. Diuresis
d. Sweating

102. Question - 151
Osmolarity of normal saline is:
a. 134mEq/L
b. 144mEq/L
c. 154mEq/L
d. 164mEq/L

103. Question - 151
Osmolarity of normal saline is:
a. 134mEq/L
b. 144mEq/L
c. 154mEq/L
d. 164mEq/L

104. Question - 152
The most common symptom in
children with symptomatic cardiac
malformation is:
a. Poor feeding
b. Hypothermia
c. Delayed Physical Growth
d. Clubbing of the finger tips

105. Question – 152 (Answer)
The most common symptom in
children with symptomatic cardiac
malformation is:
a. Poor feeding
b. Hypothermia
c. Delayed Physical Growth
d. Clubbing of the finger tips

106. Question - 153
In bacterial meningitis CSF reveals:
a. Decreased cell count
b. Elevated protein level
c. Increased glucose
d. Low spinal fluid volume

107. Question – 153 (Answer)
In bacterial meningitis CSF reveals:
a. Decreased cell count
b. Elevated protein level
c. Increased glucose
d. Low spinal fluid volume

108. Question - 154
Toddler have a tendency to say NO to
everything. This feature is known as:
a. Imitation
b. Negativism
c. Ritualism
d. Autonomy

109. Question – 154 (Answer)
Toddler have a tendency to say NO to
everything. This feature is known as:
a. Imitation
b. Negativism
c. Ritualism
d. Autonomy

110. Question - 155
What is persistent diarrhoea?
a. Diarrhoea last > 1 week
b. Diarrhoea last > 2 week
c. Diarrhoea last > 3 week
d. Diarrhoea last > 4 week

111. Question – 155 (Answer)
What is persistent diarrhoea?
a. Diarrhoea last > 1 week
b. Diarrhoea last > 2 week
c. Diarrhoea last > 3 week
d. Diarrhoea last > 4 week

112. Question - 156
Most priority nursing intervention while
caring for a child who is suffering from
tonic – clonic seizure is?
a. Start oxygen by mask
b. Make child site and provide water
c. Protect child from self injury
d. Apply restraints

113. Question – 156(Answer)
Most priority nursing intervention while
caring for a child who is suffering from
tonic – clonic seizure is?
a. Start oxygen by mask
b. Make child site and provide water
c. Protect child from self injury
d. Apply restraints

114. Question - 157
Site of lesion in polio is ………
a. Dorsal horn of spinal cord
b. Ventral horn of spinal cord
c. Spinal cord
d. All muscles

115. Question – 157 (Answer)
Site of lesion in polio is ………
a. Dorsal horn of spinal cord
b. Ventral horn of spinal cord
c. Spinal cord
d. All muscles

116. Question - 158
All among the following are minor
criteria for diagnosing rheumatic
fever as per Jones Criteria EXCEPT.
a. Erythema marginatum
b. Artharalgia
c. Carditis
d. Polyarthritis

117. Question – 158 (Answer)
All among the following are minor
criteria for diagnosing rheumatic
fever as per Jones Criteria EXCEPT.
a. Erythema marginatum
b. Artharalgia
c. Carditis
d. Polyarthritis

118. Question - 159
The oldest and cheapest Audio –
Visual Aid that is widely accepted in
teaching is:
a. Charts
b. Chalk Board
c. Flip Cards
d. PPT

119. Question - 159
The oldest and cheapest Audio –
Visual Aid that is widely accepted in
teaching is:
a. Charts
b. Chalk Board
c. Flip Cards
d. PPT

120. Question - 160
Fructose in semen is produced from:
a. Testes
b. Bulbourethral Gland
c. Prostate Gland
d. Seminal Vesicle

121. Question - 160
Fructose in semen is produced from:
a. Testes
b. Bulbourethral Gland
c. Prostate Gland
d. Seminal Vesicle