1. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
Section VII Breast Radiology
139. You are shown a left MLO view and spot compression view of the left breast
(Figures 1A and 1B). No definite abnormality was seen on the CC views. What
is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Ductal carcinoma in situ
B. Radial scar
C. Invasive lobular carcinoma
D. Medullary carcinoma
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Ductal carcinoma in situ usually presents as calcification and
does not usually cause distortion unless there is an invasive component.
B. Incorrect. A radial scar usually has a dark center with radiating lines as
opposed to the image, which has a white center due to the presence of a
mass. Usually a radial scar is visualized on both views.
C. Correct. Invasive lobular carcinoma is commonly seen on one view only
or a least best visualized on one view. It is the hardest cancer to detect
on mammography because it grows one cell at a time. It most commonly
presents as an area of distortion or spiculation. The size is often difficult
to measure on mammography and ultrasound.
D. Incorrect. Medullary carcinoma typically presents as a round mass, which
grows rapidly.
References: Ikeda, Debra. “Breast Imaging” pp. 97-99.
2. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
140. You are shown a screening right MLO (Figure 2A) and magnification views
in the MLO (Figure 2B) and CC (Figure 2C) projections. Which is the MOST
appropriate BI-RADS code?
A. Category 0
B. Category 2
C. Category 3
D. Category 4
RATIONALES:
B. Correct. Hamartomas are unusual circumscribed benign breast lesions
composed of variable amounts of fat, glandular tissue, and fibrous connective
tissue. The classic mammographic appearance is virtually diagnostic. The
lesion is circumscribed and contains both fat and soft-tissue density surrounded
by a thin radiopaque capsule. When diagnostic features are present, routine
annual mammography is appropriate and this should be coded Bi-RADS
category 2.
.
References:
Basset. Diagnosis of Diseases of the Breast. 2nd
ed. Elsevier Saunders Co.,
Philadelphia, PA. 2005.
3. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
141. You are shown a T2-weighted (Figure 3A) and T1-weighted (Figure 3B) post
contrast subtraction sagittal MRI of a 45-year-old woman. What is the MOST
LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Lipoma
C. Lobular carcinoma
D. Simple Cyst
RATIONALES: Figure 1A, T2 weighted imaging, shows a well circumscribed mass of
homogeneous high signal intensity. Figure 1B shows the same mass to “drop out” on
the subtraction image. No evidence of contrast enhancement is seen within or
surrounding the mass.
A. Incorrect. On MRI imaging of the breast, fibroadenomas are predominantly
solid with variable enhancement. This mass is fluid filled and has no
enhancement.
B. Incorrect. Lipomas should follow fat signal on both T1 and T2 weighted
imaging. No high signal would be seen on either image.
C. Incorrect. Breast cancers are typically solid with irregular margins and have
marked enhancement. While imaging characteristics of breast cancer are
variable, a well circumscribed fluid filled mass is not characteristic for breast
cancer.
D. Correct. This well circumscribed fluid filled mass is classic for a benign simple cyst.
References:
Jackson VP. The Radiologic Clinics of North America, Breast Imaging. November
1995 Volume 33, Number 6.
4. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
142. You are shown an MLO image (Figure 4A) as well as a magnification image
(Figure 4B) and an ultrasound image (Figure 4C) of the inferior right breast.
Which one of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Silicone granuloma
B. Invasive ductal carcinoma
C. Fat Necrosis
D. Fibroadenoma
RATIONALES:
A. Correct. The mammogram image shows a well circumscribed dense mass
inferior and anterior to the breast implant with additional dense material adjacent
to the implant itself. US show a classic hyperechoic mass with snowstorm
appearance.
B. Incorrect. While breast cancer lesions can be well circumscribed on
mammogram and US, most invasive ducal carcinomas are of decreased
echogenicity on US and would typically have posterior shadowing as opposed to
a snowstorm appearance.
C. Incorrect. Fat Necrosis may appear as a mass on well circumscribed mass on
mammogram. They may also have increased echogenicity on US. However,
given the snowstorm appearance on US, density of mass on mammogram and
the proximity to the implant make silicone granuloma more likely
D. Incorrect. Fibroadenomas may be well circumscribed on mammogram and US
but are typically homogeneously hypoechoic at US.
References:
1) Stavros, AT. Breast Ultrasound. Lippincott Williams & Wilkens.
Philadelphia, PA. 2004.
2) McGahan JP, Goldberg BB. Diagnostic Ultrasound A Logical Approach.
Lippincott-Raven. Philadelphia, PA. 19
5. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
143. You are shown a screening MLO mammogram (Figure 5A) and the same
view taken 1 year later (Figure 5B). What should be recommended next?
A. Ultrasound examination
B. Additional mammographic images
C. 6-month follow up
D. Stereotactic biopsy
RATIONALE
A. Incorrect. The increased density in the upper aspect of the right breast may
not be a true finding and requires spot compression views of the breast to see if it
persists. Ultrasound evaluation without knowing the location of the lesion is of
limited usefulness and should not be the preliminary workup.
B. Correct. Additional mammographic workup should be performed including spot
compression views to see if the area of increased density persists and if so
triangulation to localize the finding on the craniocaudal view.
C. Incorrect. When a new finding is seen on mammography it requires a workup
mammographically and with a possible ultrasound before it is placed into a
BIRADS™ 3 category.
D. Incorrect. Before a biopsy should be considered the finding needs to be
authenticated. A mammographic workup is required.
6. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
144. You are shown a right straight lateral (90 degree) magnification view (Figure
6). Which one of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Invasive lobular carcinoma
B. Ductal carcinoma in situ
C. Sclerosing Adenosis
D. Milk of calcium
A. Incorrect. The most common presentations of invasive lobular carcinoma are a
spiculated mass, an ill-defined or obscured mass, and architectural distortion.
Occasionally, lobular carcinomas are diffusely infiltrating and may show only subtle
findings on mammography.
B. Correct. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is usually detected on mammography, with
calcifications being the mammographic hallmark. The calcifications are typically fine,
linear, discontinuous, and branching, often in a ductal distribution.
C. Incorrect. Adenosis is an abnormality of the lobules. Mammographically, the
findings are often nonspecific and include diffuse ill defined nodular densities or multiple
round or punctate calcifications. This should be considered a histologic diagnosis rather
than a typical imaging diagnosis.
D. Incorrect. Calcifications of milk of calcium have a layering appearance or crescent
shape on horizontal beam (straight lateral) views.
References:
Basset. Diagnosis of Diseases of the Breast. 2nd
ed. Elsevier Saunders Co.,
Philadelphia, PA. 2005.
7. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
145. Which quality control test must be performed DAILY?
A. Phantom image evaluation
B. Repeat analysis
C. Processor QC
D. Darkroom fog
A. Incorrect. Evaluation of the phantom image should be performed at least weekly but
is not required to be performed on a daily basis.
B. Incorrect. The repeat analysis should be performed quarterly.
C. Correct. Processor QC should be performed daily at the start of the workday before
any patient films are put through the processor.
D. Incorrect. Darkroom fog should be tested semiannually.
146. Increased dynamic range in digital mammography as compared to screen-
film mammography results in which of the following?
A. Increased temporal resolution
B. Increased contrast resolution
C. Reduced spatial resolution
D. Radiation dose is decreased
A. Incorrect. Temporal resolution is not affected by increased dynamic range.
B. Correct. Different exposure levels mapping to a wider range allows for increased
contrast in a digital image.
C. Incorrect. increased dynamic range does not affect spatial resolution
D. Incorrect. increased dynamic range does not affect radiation dose
References: Mahesh M, AAPM/RSNA Physics
Tutorial for Residents: Digital Mammography: An Overview, RadioGraphics 2004;
24:1747–1760
8. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
147. In film-screen mammography, film performs multiple functions that are
coupled together. In digital mammography, these same functions are decoupled
so that each may be optimized independently. Which of the following are the
multiple functions?
A. Image acquisition, scatter rejection, and archive
B. Image acquisition, display, and magnification
C. Image acquisition, display, and archive
D. X-ray absorption, scatter rejection, and display
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect – scatter rejection is accomplished by a grid
B. Incorrect – magnification can not be accomplished with film alone
C. Correct
D. Incorrect – x-ray absorption is accomplished by a phosphor screen, scatter rejection
is accomplished by a grid
References: Mahesh M, AAPM/RSNA Physics
Tutorial for Residents: Digital Mammography: An Overview, RadioGraphics 2004;
24:1747–1760
9. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
148. Concerning nipple discharge, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Discharge associated with breast cancer usually arises from a single duct.
B. Intraductal papillary carcinoma is the most common cause of bloody
discharge.
C. Green discharge is suspicious for underlying malignancy.
D. Galactography is used to distinguish benign from malignant discharge.
A. Correct. Benign nipple discharge usually arises from multiple ducts, whereas nipple
discharge from a papilloma or DCIS usually occurs from a single duct.
B. Incorrect. The most common mass producing bloody nipple discharge is a benign
intraductal papilloma. Only approximately 5% of women with bloody nipple discharge
are found to have malignancy at biopsy.
C. Incorrect. Nipple discharge is of particular concern if it is spontaneous and from a
single duct, or if the discharge is clear or bloody.
D. Incorrect. Galactography is more sensitive than mammography in the detection of
intraductal lesions but it cannot accurately distinguish between benign and malignant
findings.
References:
1. Ikeda DM. The Requisites: Breast Imaging. Elsevier Mosby,
Philadelphia, PA. 2004.
2. Bassett LW, Jackson VP, et al. Diagnosis of Diseases of the
Breast. Elsevier Saunders, 2nd
Edition, Philadelphia, PA 2005.
10. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
149. Concerning fibroadenomas, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Posterior acoustic enhancement is diagnostic on ultrasonography.
B. Calcifications typically develop centrally within the mammographic mass.
C. Dark internal septations and persistent enhancement are characteristic
findings on MRI.
D. The presence of cystic spaces on ultrasonography indicates malignant
degeneration.
A. Incorrect. On ultrasound, they may demonstrate posterior acoustic enhancement or
shadowing. Neither feature is diagnostic.
B. Incorrect. As the fibroadenoma ages, it may become sclerotic and less cellular.
Popcorn like calcifications subsequently develop at the periphery of the mass and
ultimately, the entire mass may be replaced by dense calcification.
C. Correct. On MRI, fibroadenomas have the classic appearance of an enhancing oval
or lobulated mass with well circumscribed borders. They contain dark internal
septations with a gradual initial enhancement rate and a persistent enhancement curve.
D. Incorrect. Fibroadenomas are typically hypoechoic on sonography but may contain
cystic spaces. The presence of cystic spaces does not necessarily indicate malignant
degeneration.
References:
1. Ikeda DM. The Requisites: Breast Imaging. Elsevier Mosby, Philadelphia, PA.
2004.
11. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
150. Which one of the following risk factors places a patient at the HIGHEST risk
for developing breast cancer?
A. Moderate/florid ductal hyperplasia
B. Lobular carcinoma in situ
C. Sclerosing adenosis
D. Atypical ductal hyperplasia
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Moderate hyperplasia raises risk slightly for breast cancer.
B. Correct. High risk for breast cancer with lobular carcinoma insitu( 8-10X
increase)
C. Incorrect. Moderate increased risk for this.
D. Incorrect. Moderate increased risk for this.
References: Cardenosa, Gilda. “Breast Imaging Companion” second edition.
Pp. 3-4. The following cause a high risk for breast cancer: Aypical ductal
hyerplasia with positive family history of a first degree with breast cancer, LCIS
and well-differentiated ductal carcinoma insitu. High risk means 8-10 x increased
risk. Other factors as mentioned in question increase risk on slightly or
moderately.
12. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
151. Which of the following ultrasonographic findings is MOST commonly
associated with a galactocele?
A. Oval mass
B. Anechoic mass
C. Mass with angular margins
D. Mass with microlobulated margins
RATIONALES:
A. Correct. A galactocele is usually oval to round in shape.
B. Incorrect. A galactocele will have internal debris and be hypoechoic or mixed
echogenicity on ultrasound.
C. Incorrect. Angular margins are associated with malignancy.
D. Incorrect. A microlobuated mass infers malignancy and galactocele is usually
oval and smooth.
References: Ikeda, Debra. “ Breast Imaging” pp. 128-129. A galactocele is
usually low density on mammography and has internal echoes on ultrasound with
smooth borders and configuration. It can have through transmission of sound or
shadowing. When aspirated white milky fluid is obtained.
152. Which of the following findings on MRI is MOST suggestive of a malignant
breast mass?
A. Mild enhancement curve
B. Enhancement washout curve
C. Homogeneous enhancement
D. Dark internal septations
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Breast cancer will enhance brightly with marked uptake not mild
enhancement.
B. Correct. Washout curves are highly suspicious of malignancy.
C. Incorrect. Breast cancer will enhance heterogeneous reflecting areas of
varied activity and necrosis.
D. Incorrect. Septations are usually not present and if present will be bright.
References: Morris, Elizabeth and Laura Leiberman. “Breast MRI” pp. 173-183.
ACR Lexicon for Breast MRI. A breast cancer will enhance brightly with rapid
uptake and rapid washout of contrast. The enhancement pattern will be
heterogeneous representing areas of varied activity and possible necrosis.
Septations are usually not present and if present will enhance and be bright.
13. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
153. Using ACR Accreditation criteria for clinical image evaluation, which is
recommended for pectoralis muscle?
A. A concave shape on the MLO view
B Visible on the CC view
C. Equal in size on the CC and MLO views
D. Extends to the level of the posterior nipple line
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. The pectoral muscle should have a convex shape on the MLO view.
B. Incorrect. The pectoral muscle does not have to be demonstrated on the CC
view. There should be as much tissue on the CC in relation to the MLO within 1
cm.
C. Incorrect. The pectoral muscle will not be the same size on both views and
usually is much smaller on CC view.
D. Correct. The pectoral muscle should extend to the posterior nipple line on the
MLO view.
References: Cardenosa, Gilda “Breast Imaging Companion” pp. 100-109. The
ACR criteria state the requirements for correct positioning of the both the CC and
MLO views. The MLO view should have a convex pectoral muscle and extend
to within 1 cm of the PNL. The inframammary fold should be opened and the
nipple in profile. The breast tissue should be adequately compressed. On the
CC view, there should be at least at much tissue within 1 cm as on the MLO.
14. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
154. Which one of the following is an indication for evaluation of the breast with
contrast-enhanced MRI?
A. Suspected implant rupture
B. Extent of tumor in dense breasts
C. Cystic masses in both breasts
D. Cloudy discharge with negative galactogram
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Contrast is not necessary for evaluation of implant rupture. Images
with fat saturation and silicone and water saturation would be helpful.
B. Correct. Contrast can help to locate other foci of tumor and more accurately
evaluate tumor size as well as lymph node involvement.
C. Incorrect. Cystic masses do not require the use of contrast but can be
detected by T1 and T2 imaging.
D. Incorrect. White discharge is usually benign. Bloody or clear discharge could
be evaluated with MRI and contrast may be helpful.
References: Ikeda, Debra. “Breast Imaging” pp. 210-213.
15. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
155. Regarding Paget’s disease, which one of the following is CORRECT?
A. It is characterized by bleeding and ulceration of the nipple-areolar complex.
B. It is classically diagnosed as an irregular mass on mammography.
C. It results from a chronic irritation of the nipple-areolar complex epidermis.
D. It is typically treated with partial breast irradiation.
RATIONALES:
A. Correct. Paget’s disease is characterized by a chronic erythematous,
ulcerating and bleeding nipple-areolar complex. These findings may cause
itching, bleeding or a burning sensation of the nipple.
B. Incorrect. Paget’s is classically diagnosed when there is a high degree of
clinical concern based on physical exam findings. This is confirmed with skin
biopsy. While, mammographic findings may include skin or nipple thickening,
calcifications or a retroareolar mass, as many as one third of all patients have no
mammographic finding.
C. Incorrect. Paget’s may appear similar to dermatitis with chronic inflammation
but the disease results from the extension of malignant cells up thru the ducts to
the nipple surface epithelium.
D. Incorrect. Depending on the extent of involvement, treatment routinely includes
surgery. Surgical options include: a breast conserving procedure if the area of
involvement is small and there is little or no invasive component or a total mastectomy
with or without axillary sampling if the mass is larger and has a significant invasive
component. Breast irradiation as a single method of treatment is not considered
adequate or appropriate treatment and should be considered only in conjunction with a
definitive surgical procedure.
References:
1. Bassett LW, Jackson VP, Fu KL, Fu YS. Diagnosis of Diseases of the Breast.
2nd
Edition. Elsevier Saunders, Phildelphia, PA. 2005, pp 527-528.
2. Powell DE; Stelling CB. The Diagnosis and Detection of Breast Disease.
Mosby, St. Louis, MO. 1994, pp 334.
16. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
156. Approximately what percentage of breast cancers occur in men?
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
RATIONALES:
A. Correct. Given data from the American Cancer Society, it is estimated that 1720 new
cases of male breast cancer will be diagnosed in 2006. This is in contrast to the
estimated 212,900 new cases of female breast cancer that will be diagnosed in the
same time period. This suggests that approximately one out of every 100 new breast
cancers will be in a male patient.
157. Concerning invasive lobular carcinoma, which one of the following is
TRUE?
A. The most common mammographic finding is a dominant mass with
calcifications.
B. It accounts for approximately 20% of all breast cancer cases.
C. An ill-defined hypoechoic mass on ultrasonography is typical.
D. It is easily distinguished from invasive ductal carcinoma on mammogram and
ultrasound.
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) is probably the most difficult type
of breast cancer to identify using any imaging modality. This type of breast
cancer is most commonly seen on mammogram as a spiculated mass or area of
architectural distortion. However, many ILC tumors are subtle and are difficult to
detect due to a diffusely infiltrative nature. Calcifications are not typical but may
occur in up to 20% of cases.
B. Incorrect. ILC accounts for approximately 10% of all breast cancer cases and
is the second most common type after invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC) not
otherwise specified.
C. Correct. ILC is usually seen on ultrasound as an ill defined solid mass of
decreased echogenicity. There is often considerable post tumoral shadowing.
D. Incorrect. Unfortunately, there are no specific distinguishing factors between ILC and
IDC on any imaging modality including mammogram, US, MRI and PET. However, the
overall subtle nature of ILC makes it one of the most difficult tumors to detect.
References:
1. Bassett LW, Jackson VP, Fu KL, Fu YS. Diagnosis of Diseases of the
Breast. 2nd
Edition. Elsevier Saunders, Philadelphia, PA. 2005.
17. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
2. Cardenosa. Breast Imaging Companion. 2nd
. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins
Philadelphia, PA. 2001
Powell DE; Stelling CB. The Diagnosis and Detection of Breast Disease. Mosby,
St. Louis, MO. 1994.
158. Concerning complex sclerosing lesions (radial scars), which one of the
following is TRUE?
A. They are typically related to prior trauma or an invasive surgical procedure.
B. They usually present as palpable masses at clinical exam.
C. Mammographic features include a circumscribed mass with a central lucency.
D. They have been shown to be associated with tubular carcinoma and atypical
hyperplasia.
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Complex sclerosing lesions, radial scars, are not related to prior
trauma or surgery and are not in fact “scars” at all. The etiology of radial scars is
unknown.
B. Incorrect. Radial scars are typically seen on mammography or are incidentally
found at excisional biopsy but are not characteristically palpable on physical
exam
C. Incorrect. Classic mammographic features of a complex sclerosing lesion
include a spiculated mass with a central lucency. This is often considered to
represent entrapped fat.
D. Correct. Radial scars do have an association with tubular carcinoma, invasive ducal
carcinoma, DCIS and atypical hyperplasia. Because of this relationship and to avoid
sampling error at core needle biopsy, it is often felt that surgical excision is required to
exclude any related malignancy.
References:
1. Bassett LW, Jackson VP, Fu KL, Fu YS. Diagnosis of Diseases of the
Breast. 2nd
Edition. Elsevier Saunders, Philadelphia, PA. 2005.
2. Cardenosa. Breast Imaging Companion. 2nd edition
. Lippincott Williams &
Wilkins Philadelphia, PA. 2001
18. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
159. Regarding phyllodes tumor, which one of the following is TRUE?
A. Benign and malignant phyllodes tumors can be distinguished using
ultrasonography.
B. Phyllodes tumors typically occur in women younger than age 40.
C. Up to 15% of malignant phyllodes tumors will have lymphatic metastasis.
D. Approximately 20% of all phyllodes tumors will recur locally after surgical
excision.
RATIONALES:
A. Incorrect. Benign and malignant phyllodes tumors are indistinguishable on
mammography and ultrasound. When small, there are also indistinguishable from
fibroadenomas. If the mass is larger in size with an inhomogeneous echotexture
and peripheral cystic spaces, the malignant variant may be suggested.
B. Incorrect. Phyllodes tumors typically occur 10-20 years later than
fibroadenomas with an age of presentation between 40 and 50.
C. Incorrect. While less than 20% of malignant phyllodes tumors will
metastasize, metastasis is classically via a hematogenous route to the lungs and
bone.
D. Correct. There is a high recurrence rate, 20% or greater, with phyllodes tumors. The
borderline and malignant types have the highest rate of recurrence. Recurrence is more
likely if surgical margin is less than 2 cm.
References:
1. Harris JR, Lippman ME, Morrow M, Osborne CK. Diseases of the Breast. 2nd
edition. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, Philadelphia, PA. 2000.
19. 2007 ACR Diagnostic Radiology In-Training Exam Rationales
160. Concerning tubular carcinoma, which is CORRECT?
A. It has a less favorable prognosis than invasive ductal carcinoma.
B. It is typically a well-circumscribed mass.
C. Microcalcifications are frequently associated.
D. It is commonly histologic grade 1.
RATIONALES
A. Incorrect. Tubular carcinoma has a more favorable prognosis than invasive
ductal carcinoma.
B. Incorrect. Tubular carcinomas are not typically well circumscribed. They are
slow growing and have an irregular shape and are spiculated.
C. Incorrect. Microcalcifications occur infrequently (10-15%) in tubular carcinoma.
D. Correct. Tubular carcinomas are well differentiated and nearly always grade1.
161. Concerning duct ectasia, which of the following is TRUE?
A. It must be bilateral to make the diagnosis mammographically.
B. The associated calcifications may contain internal lucencies.
C. It carries an increased risk for breast cancer.
D. It is associated with previous bacterial infection.
RATIONALES
A. Incorrect. In duct ectasia the secretions in the ducts often calcify, producing
the typical secretory calcifications seen as rod like calcifications. These
calcifications are commonly diffuse and bilateral but can be unilateral and more
focal.
B. Correct. The calcifications in duct ectasia can contain internal lucencies when
the calcifications occur on the outside of the duct.
C. Incorrect. Ductal ectasia does not increase a woman’s risk of breast cancer.
D. Incorrect. Duct Ectasia is a chemical mastitis.