Pce sample question set 1 (eng)

PCE Sample Questions (Eng) – Set 1
Zurich confidential or proprietary information Version: Jan 2013
Prepared by: Agency Training & Development Page 1
1. Which of the following is NOT an essential feature of insurance?
A. All risks can be insured.
B. It is an economic institution.
C. It is based on the principle of mutuality.
D. It is an accumulation of funds to pay for claims resulting from a specific risk.
2. Which of the following is NOT a risk covered by insurance?
A. loss of life due to a motor accident.
B. loss or damage arising from a motor vehicle accident.
C. liability to third parties arising from the sale of products.
D. financial loss due to a drop in the market price of a company’s shares.
3. The secondary functions of insurance will include all of the following, EXCEPT
A. risk transfer mechanism.
B. means of savings.
C. cost stabilization.
D. reducing losses.
4. Life insurance contracts can be arranged to provide cover against the following forms of
risk:
I. bank loans.
II. premature death.
III. sickness or disability.
IV. continuous stream of income during retirement (i.e. old age).
A. I and II.
B. I, II and IV.
C. III and IV.
D. All of the above.
5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an insurable risk?
A. It should not be against public policy.
B. It must be accidental in nature.
C. It must be a speculative risk.
D. It must be a pure risk.
SET 1: PCE SAMPLE QUESTIONS

6. Which of the following is the least effective approach to risk management?
A. avoiding the risk.
B. transferring the risk.
C. retaining the risk.
D. ignoring the risk.
7. Which of the following is NOT a loss prevention and loss reduction technique in fire
insurance?
A. training employees in fire prevention.
B. disposal of waste material in a proper manner and good housekeeping.
C. use of non-combustible material in building construction.
D. installation of a burglar alarm system.
8. Which of the following is NOT a loss prevention and loss reduction technique in life and
health insurance?
A. training employees in first aid.
B. avoiding cigarette smoking.
C. insuring a life for an amount in line with his financial standing in life.
D. installing grills in windows of the house in which the life assured is living.
9. Which of the following is NOT a pure risk?
A. Fire.
B. Flood.
C. Theft.
D. Operating a supermarket.
10. Lack of insurable interest will
A. render the contract void.
B. have no effect on the policy contract.
C. render the contract unenforceable to certain extent.
D. operate only when loss is caused by an insured peril.
11. In marine cargo insurance, insurable interest must exist
A. at the time of loss.
B. before the ship sails.
C. at the time of effecting the insurance contract.
D. at the inception of the contract and at the time of loss.

12. In life insurance, insurable interest must exist
A. at the time of loss.
B. during the currency of the policy.
C. at the time of effecting the insurance contract.
D. at the inception of the contract and at the time of loss.
13. In case of breach of utmost good faith, the aggrieved party can
A. void the contract.
B. sue for damages.
C. waive the breach.
D. do any one of the above.
14. Indemnity can be provided in the following ways:
A. cash payment or repair only.
B. cash payment or replacement only.
C. cash payment, repair or replacement only.
D. cash payment, replacement, repair or reinstatement.
15. Which of the following is NOT an intermediary?
A. a broker.
B. a reinsurer.
C. a life insurance agent.
D. a general insurance agent.
16. One of the disadvantage of decentralization is
A. prompt services can be rendered to customers.
B. branches are granted authority to make decisions.
C. staff are in a better position to satisfy needs of local customers.
D. duplication of resources, particularly when each branch performs all the basic functions.
17. Which of the following facts is NOT true of insurance brokers?
A. Insurance brokers are professionals.
B. Insurance brokers represent the proposer.
C. Insurance brokers must be members of MITBA.
D. Insurance brokers can only represent two insurance companies.

18. If BNM is satisfied that an insurer is not conducting his business in accordance with the
provisions of the Insurance Act, the authority can
A. issue directions regarding the conduct of the insurer’s business.
B. assume control over the property, business and affairs of the insurer.
C. apply to the court to appoint a receiver or manager to manage the affairs and property of
the insurer.
D. do all of the above.
19. The objective of self-regulation includes
A. to introduce statutory regulations to discipline the industry.
B. to put in place measures that do not respond quickly to changing needs.
C. to implement codes of practice that have the power of law.
D. to instill discipline and promote healthy competition in the industry.
20. For a contract to be valid,
A. it must have consideration.
B. it should not be against public policy.
C. the parties to it must have intention to create a legal relationship.
D. all of the above.
21. In cash-before-cover policies, for example motor policies, the insured’s consideration is
A. to pay premium as and when he feels like it.
B. to pay premium one week after he is given insurance cover.
C. to pay premium on the day he is given insurance cover.
D. to promise to pay the premium due.
22. Which of the following statements is NOT true about void contracts?
A. Void contracts are not enforceable in a court of law.
B. Void contracts are simply those which the law holds to be no contracts at all, a nullity
from the beginning.
C. They are totally invalid and are nothing more than mere agreements.
D. Void contracts will remain valid until the aggrieved party exercises the option to treat
them void.
23. In general and life insurance contracts, the insured’s consideration is to pay or promise
to pay premium, while in the case of general insurance policies, the consideration by the
insurer is to
A. promise to indemnify the insured when an insured loss occurs.
B. promise to pay the total sum insured irrespective of the amount of loss.
C. promise to pay the insured the sum assured and additional benefits, if any,
when an insured event occurs.
D. promise to give a refund to the insured at the end of the policy term if no loss
takes place during the period of insurance.

24. The agency relationship can be created by
A. express appointment.
B. implication of the law.
C. subsequent ratification.
25. In insurance, the agent is acting on behalf of or is an agent of
A. the proposer/policyholder.
B. the insurance company.
C. both a and b .
D. none of the above.
26. An agent is not allowed to
I. let his own interest conflict with his obligation to the principal.
II. take any secret profit or bribe from any party with whom he deals on behalf of the
principal.
III. disclose confidential information obtained in the course of his duties as an agent to
other parties except the principal insurance company.
IV. delegate his duties to a sub-agent without authority, expressed or implied.
A. I and II only.
B. II and IV only.
C. III and IV only.
27. Under the Agency Agreement, agents are allowed to do the following, EXCEPT
A. solicit insurance business on behalf of the insurer.
B. represent more than two general insurance companies.
C. act on behalf of the insurer in relation to the issuance and renewal of the continuance of
a policy.
D. negotiate terms and conditions for a policy under delegated authority from the insurer.
28. Which of the following is NOT true about the Premium Warranty?
A. The insured is required to pay the premiums charged for the insurance within 60 days
from the effective date of insurance cover.
B. If the premium is not paid by the 60th day, the insurance cover will be cancelled from the
61st day.
C. The insurer shall be entitled to short period premium for the period they have been on
risk.
D. Any payment received by the appointed agent shall be deemed to be received by the
insurer.

29. A market segment refers to
A. a group of consumers with similar needs.
B. consumers with different requirements.
C. producers of a particular product.
D. agents of a particular insurance company.
30. Selling techniques used in insurance selling exclude
A. assisting customer fulfil a recognized need.
B. helping a customer become aware of his needs.
C. establishing goodwill with the customer.
31. Payment of premiums can be in the form of
A. cash or cheque direct to the insurance company.
B. direct debit against the policyholder’s bank account.
C. payroll deductions.
32. A sales strategy is a way of achieving the sales goal. The following is NOT an example
of such a strategy:
A. selling a wider range of policies to existing clients.
B. expanding the agency’s clientele.
C. selling policies to specific market segments.
D. selling products to customers who do not need the product or cannot
afford them.
33. In general, the marketing department of a market-oriented insurance company should
undertake the following functions, EXCEPT
A. planning and controlling.
B. market identification.
C. pricing and promotionp.
D. agent selection.
34. Which of the following does NOT come under medical and health insurance?
A. medical expense insurance.
B. long-term insurance.
C. dread diseases insurance.
D. disability income insurance.

35. Insurers who launch new medical and health insurance products must lodge the
actuarial certificate for the products with BNM at least _______ days before the products
are offered to the public.
A. 31 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 60 days.
D. 90 days.
36. Medical and health insurance is usually divided into the following two categories:
A. indemnity policies and long-term policies.
B. benefit policies and yearly renewable policies.
C. indemnity policies and comprehensive personal accident policies.
D. benefit policies and indemnity policies.
37. A hospitalization cash benefits policy is _____________ because its pays a
predetermined sum of money if an insured event occurs during the period of coverage.
A. an indemnity policy.
B. a benefit policy.
C. a hospital and surgical policy.
D. disability income policy.
38. Conventionally, medical and health insurance products are normally sold as
A. individual or group policies.
B. term or multiple policies.
C. cashless or group policies.
D. multiple or direct mail policies.
39. A major medical expenses policy generally pays amounts
A. for expenses from first dollar.
B. for daily hospital cash benefit.
C. for co-sharing.
D. above a pre-agreed deductible.
40. The four main classes of medical and health insurance policies generally sold by
Insurers would include
A. dental expenses, hospitalization cash benefit, critical illness, and disability income
insurance.
B. medical expenses, hospitalization cash benefit, critical illness, and disability income
insurance.
C. dental expenses, hospitalization cash benefit, clinical insurance, and disability income
insurance.
D. medical expenses, maternity cash benefit, critical illness, and disability income
insurance.

41. Some of the supplementary covers insurers may incorporate into their medical insurance
policies are
I. eye care insurance.
II. maternity insurance.
III. clinical insurance.
IV. dental insurance.
A. I and II.
B. I, II and IV.
C. II, III and IV.
42. The two most common expense participation methods found in major medical expenses
insurance policies are:
A. deductibles and co-insurance.
B. co-insurance and co-payment.
C. co-payment and deductibles.
D. cashless and reimbursement.
43. Anti-selection refers to a situation where
A. more standard risks are accepted for insurance resulting in a less favorable underwriting
result.
B. more sub-standard risks are accepted for insurance resulting in a less favorable
underwriting result.
C. more standard risks are accepted for insurance resulting in a more favorable
D. more sub-standard risks are accepted for insurance resulting in a more favorable
44. What are the common factors that medical and health insurance underwriters usually
look into while performing risk selection?
I. medical factors.
II. financial factors.
III. age and sex factors.
IV. occupational factors.
A. I and II.
B. I and III.
C. I, III and IV.

45. Mortality and morbidity rates generally increase with
A. the age of the population.
B. the increase in income of the population.
C. the length of period required to recuperate from any injury.
D. economic downturn.
46. Which of the following is an important consideration when underwriting disability income
coverage?
A. friends.
B. age.
C. sex.
D. financial status.
47. Underwriting is referred to as the process of
A. the quoting of premium rates and terms, and issuance of the policy.
B. the assessment and selection of risks, and the determination of premium, terms and
conditions.
C. the determination of premium rates only.
D. the assessment of the possibility of recurrence of an illness.
48. __________ is a document drafted by the insurer in the form of questionnaires for each
class of insurance to assist the insurer in gathering information required to assess a risk
being proposed.
A. A medical questionnaire form.
B. A proposal form.
C. An underwriting sheet.
D. A health declaration form.
49. Which of the following conditions fall under the category of implied conditions?
I. the duty of utmost good faith.
II. the existence of insurable interest.
III. the existence of the subject matter of insurance.
IV. identification of the subject matter of insurance.
A. I and II.
B. I, II and III.
C. II, III and IV.
D. All the above.

50. ___________ is a document drafted by insurers to gather information relevant to assess
a medical and health insurance claim.
A. The request for change form.
B. The agent’s confidential report.
C. The claim form.
D. The reinstatement form.
51. The reasonable timeframe for notification of loss under a medical and health insurance
claim is usually between
A. 14 days to 60 days.
B. 14 days to 30 days.
C. 14 days to 45 days.
D. 14 days to 90 days.
52. The following conditions have to be met before a medical and health claim can be paid,
EXCEPT
A. policy lapse.
B. no outstanding premium.
C. the loss was caused by the insured peril.
D. notification of loss was given without undue delay.
53. _______________ are usually considered as affirmative proof of hospital confinement
under a hospital or medical expenses benefit claim assessment.
A. The policy document and a claim form.
B. The original hospitalisation bill and the policy document.
C. The indemnity letter and the policy document.
D. The original hospitalisation bills and the claim form.
54. In the event of a claim dispute, arbitration is preferred to litigation because
A. litigation is speedier, less costly and hearing is in an open rather than a private court.
B. arbitration is speedier, less costly and hearing is in an open rather than a private court.
C. arbitration is speedier, less costly and hearing is in a private rather than an open court.
D. arbitration is slower and less costly and hearing is in a private rather than an open court.
55. For life insurance, insurable interest needs to exist only
A. at the time of claim.
B. at the time of surrender.
C. at the time of inception of the insurance.
D. at the time of changing the beneficiary.

56. A life insurance contract is a contract of
A. premature death.
B. financial guarantees.
C. permanent disability.
D. uberrima fides (utmost good faith).
57. The basic assumptions that are used in the life insurance premium rate calculations are
A. rate of mortality, rate of interest, rate of expenses and rate of taxation.
B. rate of mortality, rate of lapsation, rate of interest and rate of taxation.
C. rate of mortality, rate of surrender, rate of lapsation and rate of taxation.
D. rate of mortality, rate of paid-up, rate of surrender and rate of taxation.
58. An option that allows the insured of a term assurance to convert the policy into
permanent assurance like whole life or endowment assurance without evidence of
insurability but subject only to proper adjustment in the premium charged is known as
A. guaranteed insurability option.
B. guaranteed convertibility option.
C. guaranteed suitability option.
D. guaranteed permanent option.
59. What are the features of a term assurance policy?
A. Payment of the sum assured is only in the event of death, there is no surrender or
maturity value and it provides cheap guaranteed protection.
B. Payment of the sum assured is at the end of the said term if the life assured is living,
surrender or maturity value is applicable and premiums are reviewable.
C. Payment of the sum assured is only in the event of death, the suicide exclusion is
uncommon and premiums are reviewable.
D. Payment of the sum assured is at the end of the said term if the life assured is living,
paid-up value is applicable and premiums are not normally reviewable.
60. An agreement under which the life office, in return for the payment of a certain sum of
money known as the purchase price, makes a series of payment at regular intervals
from a fixed date until the death of the annuitant or at some other specified time is
known as
A. a superannuation scheme.
B. an annuity.
C. a family income benefit.
D. an endowment insurance.

61. Under the group insurance scheme the parties to the contract are the ______
A. employers and the employees.
B. employees, the employer and the insurance company.
C. employer and the insurance company.
D. beneficiary, the employees, the employer and the insurance company.
62. The period after the due date, which allows the policyholders of an ordinary life policy to
pay premium without any forfeiture or penalty is known as the
A. days of privileges.
B. days of grace.
C. days of non-forfeiture.
D. days of renewal.
63. A policy under which the surrender value is used as a single premium to provide for an
assurance on the original terms, but for a reduced sum assured is known as
A. an extended policy.
B. a paid-up policy.
C. a term policy.
D. a fees policy.
64. The transfer of legal rights under life insurance is called
A. a trust policy.
B. a CLA Section 23 policy.
C. an assignment.
D. a free policy.
65. Surrender value is granted if a life policy has been in force for
A. six years or more.
B. three years or more.
C. five years or more.
D. four years of more.
66. Which is not a major factor that influences mortality?
A. age.
B. sex.
C. friends.
D. avocation.

67. Financial underwriting involves
A. determining the amount of debts a person has.
B. calculating the number of credit cards a person owns.
C. determining the existence of insurable interest.
D. determining the types of vehicles a person owns.
68. Which of the following methods is not used by insurers when dealing with sub-standard
lives?
A. charging an extra premium.
B. offering an alternative form of contract.
C. imposing a debt or a lien.
D. providing a premium discount.
69. When a loading letter is issued by the insurer it is considered
A. an offer to the insured.
B. a rejection to the insured.
C. a counter offer to the insured.
D. a bonus declaration.
70. In respect of income tax for gainfully employed individuals, which are not allowable
deductions?
A. contributions to EPF.
B. life insurance premium.
C. dependent children’s support.
D. personal medical bills.
71. Which of the following are not considered initial expenses?
A. advertising costs.
B. medical examination expenses.
C. policy issue expenses.
D. expenses of servicing the policy.
72. Why do insurance companies have a bonus loading on certain life policies?
A. to provide bonuses for their employees.
B. to increase the profit of the company.
C. to ensure sufficient risk premium.
D. to allow their participating policyholders a share in the profits of the company.

73. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Risk premium increases with age.
B. Claim payment expenses are grouped under the heading of termination expenses.
C. Upon expiry the insurer must accept the renewal of a yearly renewal life policy.
D. Installment and true premiums are two types of periodic premiums.
74. Gross premiums do not consist of
A. net premiums.
B. loading for expenses.
C. profit from the share market.
D. expenses for contingencies.
75. Net premium takes into account the elements of
A. mortality and interest.
B. mortality and expenses.
C. expenses and interest.
D. profit and expenses.
76. The purpose of an actuarial valuation of a life office is to test and determine
A. if any changes in the company’s operations are necessary.
B. compliance with the statutory requirements.
C. the adequacy of the existing premium scales.
77. The investment that a life office has made from the premiums it has received after
meeting its outgoes in the form of claims and expenses is called
A. book value.
B. surplus.
C. assets.
D. liability.
78. What type of bonus is only paid on in-force policies, which result in claims either by
maturity or death?
A. interim bonus.
B. terminal bonus.
C. cash bonus.
D. guaranteed bonus.

79. Assets of a life office consist of the following, EXCEPT ______________
A. loans to policyholders.
B. motor cars and office equipment.
C. cash in hand.
D. guaranteed bonus.
80. Identify the main feature(s) of a life insurance policy which provides for a guaranteed
bonus each year.
A. The bonus is guaranteed.
B. The sum assured increases automatically each year at a predetermined rate.
C. The policy is strictly a non-participating policy.
81. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. The attestation clause requires the policyholder to sign in good faith.
B. Blasters and parachutists are considered hazardous occupations.
C. The premiums charged to policyholders vary with their ages.
D. Proof of age must be submitted by the policyholder before any claim can be paid under
the life policy.
82. Which of the following details appear in the proposal form?
A. with or without profits.
B. frequency and method of premium payment.
C. sum assured and additional riders/benefits.
83. ‘No life policy after the expiry of two years from the date on which it was effected be
called in question by an insurer on the ground that there is a misrepresentation made in
the proposal for insurance, or in a medical report or in a document which led to the issue
of the policy. The above description is recited under the
A. operative clause.
B. suicide clause.
C. incontestability clause.
D. provisos.
84. Name, age, sex, occupation and address of the life assured are contained in
A. the preamble.
B. the schedule.
C. the heading.
D. attestation.

85. This embodies the answers to the questions in the proposal form and the personal
statements as the basis of contract. It also subjects the policy to the conditions and
privileges printed in the policy document. What does this refer to?
A. the preamble.
B. the proviso.
C. the operative clause.
D. conditions and privileges.
86. Where the policy money becomes payable in consequence of the death of the life
insured, who is the person entitled to claim?
A. the person who originally effected the policy.
B. a trustee.
C. a surviving co-tenant.
87. A notice of death should quote ____________ where possible.
A. the policy number.
B. the deceased’s full name and address.
C. the name and address of the claimant and of his/her solicitor.
88. Where a person has disappeared without trace for more than seven years, the Courts
may presume death in the light of inquiries made in likely places of interested people
who could be expected to have heard of him. This refers to
A. presumption of death from circumstantial evidence.
B. statutory presumption of death.
C. unregistered death.
D. false death.
89. If death occurs accidentally or suddenly without known cause or prior medical attention,
what would be most useful as proof of death?
A. medical certificate.
B. certificate of death.
C. coroner’s inquest.
D. Commissioner of Oaths.
90. Before paying the maturity claim under an endowment insurance, the life office requires
the following basic proofs, EXCEPT
A. proof of age of the life assured.
B. proof of death of the life assured.
C. identity of the person entitled to the policy moneys.
D. title of the payee.

91. Among other factors, the premiums charged for life insurance policies usually vary in
relation to
A. the age, sex and number of children of the proposer.
B. the state of health and wealth of the proposer.
C. the age and sex of the proposer, type of policy required and the sum assured.
D. the term of the policy, premium payment mode and the social environment.
92. What is the age last birthday, if the life assured was born on 21 March 1965 and
the date of the proposal submitted was 1 January 1998?
A. 31 years old.
B. 32 years old.
C. 33 years old.
D. 30 years old.
93. What are the outstanding premium charges for the following situation?
Sum Assured : RM100,000
Policy Type : Whole life
Half-yearly premium : RM600.00
Premium Payment Dates : 1 April and 1 October
Last Premium Paid : 1 October 1993
Application for Reinstatement : 1 July 1995
Interest Charge : 6% per annum
A. RM1,882.58.
B. RM1,889.86.
C. RM1,890.40.
D. RM1,908.93.
Use the table below for Question 94 and 95
25-Year Endowment Assurance on Male Lives Sum Assured
(Treat female lives / as 3 years younger)
Age (Next Birthday) Premium / RM1,000 Sum Assured
25 39.50
26 40.00
27 40.50
28 41.25
29 42.00
30 42.80
31 43.60

Discount for Large Sum Assured
Sum Assured (RM) Discount / RM1,000 Sum Assured
10,000 – 24,999 RM1.00
25,000 – 39,000 RM2.00
40,000 – 54,999 RM3.00
55,000 – 69,999 RM4.00
Above 70,000 Special Quotation
94. The proposer’s particulars:
Sex : Male
Date of Birth : 14 July 1970
Cover to commence : 31 December 1995
Policy Details :
Term : 25-Year Endowment
The annual premium for the proposer is
A. RM1,035.00.
B. RM1,095.00.
C. RM1,140.00.
D. RM1,200.00.
95. The proposer’s particulars:
Sex : Female
Date of Birth : 30 March 1968
Cover to commence : 31 January 1996
Policy Details :
Term : 25-Year Endowment
The annual premium for the proposer is
A. RM192.50.
B. RM197.50.
C. RM206.25.
D. RM218.00.
96. The following are the principles underlying the guidelines on the Code of Ethics and
Conduct, EXCEPT
A. to avoid conflict of interest.
B. to avoid misuse of position.
C. to prevent transmission of information.
D. to ensure completeness and accuracy of relevant records.

97. The following statements are true pertaining to the Code of Conduct, EXCEPT
A. it serves as a guide for establishing sound and prudent business practices amongst life
insurances companies.
B. it intends to replace the judgment of employees in conducting their day-today business.
C. it serves as a guide for the promotion of proper standards of conduct.
98. The Code of Ethics and Conduct does NOT apply to
A. those who sell life insurance.
B. employees of a life insurance company.
C. registered insurance brokers.
99. When in doubt as to the implication of the Code at Conduct an employee should seek
guidance from
A. his head of department.
B. the company’s Board of Directors.
C. the Director General of Insurance.
D. the Audit/Disciplinary Committee.
100. Who are the parties involved in the case of a complaint from a policyholder that an
intermediary has acted in breach of the Code of Conduct?
I. the policyholder.
II. the intermediary.
III. the life insurance company.
A. I and II only.
B. I and III only.
C. II and III only.
D. I, II and III only.

Answer
1 A 26 D 51 B 76 D
2 D 27 B 52 A 77 C
3 A 28 C 53 D 78 B
4 D 29 A 54 C 79 D
5 C 30 D 55 C 80 A
6 D 31 D 56 D 81 A
7 D 32 D 57 A 82 D
8 D 33 D 58 B 83 C
9 D 34 B 59 A 84 B
10 A 35 B 60 B 85 B
11 A 36 D 61 C 86 B
12 C 37 B 62 B 87 D
13 A 38 A 63 B 88 B
14 D 39 D 64 C 89 C
15 B 40 B 65 B 90 B
16 D 41 C 66 C 91 C
17 D 42 C 67 C 92 B
18 D 43 B 68 D 93 A
19 D 44 D 69 C 94 C
20 D 45 A 70 D 95 B
21 C 46 D 71 D 96 C
22 D 47 B 72 D 97 B
23 A 48 B 73 C 98 C
24 D 49 D 74 C 99 A
25 C 50 C 75 A 100 D

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